Software Engineering MCQs

Software Engineering MCQs:Software Engineering Questions

Multiple Choice Questions related to Software Engineering and related topics. In this section, you can find multiple choice questions on various topics such as Software Engineering MCQs, Software Quality MCQs, Software Testing MCQs, and basic MCQs about Software Engineering S.E. For Computer Science MCQs visit Computer Science MCQs

 

1- What is another name for “White Box Testing” ??

(A) Simple Testing 

(B) Glass Box Testing

(C) Basic Testing

(D) Dataflow Testing

 

2- In a software product “Efficiency” must not have ??

(A) Licensing

(B) Memory Utilization

(C) Responsiveness

(D) Time Processing

 

3- What describes Software Engineers ??

(A) Their products only meet SRS (Software Requirement Specifications)

(B) They must act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favor

(C) Software Engineers should act consistently in the public interest

(D) All of these

 

4- How do you define software ??

(A) It is a set of documentation, programs, and data configuration

(B) It is documentation and configuration of data

(C) It is a set of programs

(D) None of these

 

5- The fundamental notions of software engineering do not account for ??

(A) Software reuse

(B) Software Security

(C) Software Validation

(D) Software Processes

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

6- What is SDLC?

(A) Software Design Life Cycle

(B) System Design Life Cycle

(C) System Development Life Cycle

(D) Software Development Life Cycle

 

7- The attributes of good software include?

(A) Software development

(B) Software Functionality

(C) Software Maintainability and Functionality

(D) Software Maintainability

 

8- What model among these isn’t suitable for accommodating any change ??

(A) Waterfall Model

(B) Prototyping Model

(C) Build and Fix Model

(D) RAD Model

 

9- The Spiral Model originally proposed by whom ??

(A) Pressman

(B) Bill Gates

(C) Royce

(D) Barry Boehm

 

10- For developing a server-client type application, what model would be the best ??

(A) Incremental Model

(B) WINWIN Spiral Model

(C) Spiral Model

(D) Concurrent Model

 

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

11- How many phases do the Build and Fix model have?

(A) 3 phases

(B) 1 phase

(C) 2 phases

(D) 4 phases

 

12- Which among these does not affect different types of software as a whole?

(A) Flexibility

(B) Security

(C) Heterogeneity

(D) Social and Business Change

 

13- The people who use the system to perform or support the work to be completed are called ??

(A) System owners 

(B) System designers 

(C) Software engineers 

(D) None of the above

 

14- In terms of issues related to professional responsibility the correct statement is ??

(A)  Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights

(B) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights

(C) Intellectual property rights

(D) Confidentiality

 

15- Which of the following is not true ??

(A) Web-based systems have led to the degradation of programming languages

(B) Web brings the concept of software as a service

(C) Web-based system should be developed and delivered incrementally

(D) Web has led to the availability of software services and the possibility of developing highly distributed service-based systems

 

16- Identify the wrong statement about Build & Fix model ??

(A) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable

(B) No room for structured design

(C) It scales up well to large projects

(D) Maintenance is practically not possible

 

17- How many phases does the RAD model have ??

(A) 5 phases

(B) 3 phases

(C) 4 phases

(D) 2 phases

 

18- Among these which one is not a phase of the Prototyping model ??

(A) Engineer Product

(B) Quick design

(C) Prototype refinement

(D) Coding

 

19- If a user is involved in all the phases of SDLC then which model can be selected ??

(A) Prototyping Model

(B) RAD model

(C) Waterfall Model

(D) Both (a) and (b)

 

20- What is the major drawback of using the RAD Model ??

(A) Increases reusability of components

(B) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required

(C) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required

(D) Encourages customer/client feedback

 

 MCQs S.E

 

21- Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ______________ LOC (Line of Code) ??

(A) 400-1000

(B) 200-400

(C) 100-200

(D) above 1000

 

22- Which of the following is not included in the certification approach ??

(A) Reliability

(B) Specific usage file

(C) Creation of usage scenarios

(D) Generation of test cases from the server’s end

 

23- Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change ??

(A) Build & Fix Model

(B) Prototyping Model

(C) Waterfall Model

(D) RAD Model

 

24- Which of the following is not an advantage of software reuse ??

(A) high effectiveness

(B) faster software development

(C) lower risks

(D)lower costs

 

25- Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole ??

(A) Heterogeneity

(B) Flexibility

(C) Business and social change

(D) Security

 

26- Which of the following is a category of stimuli ??

(A) Periodic stimuli

(B) Software stimuli

(C) Hardware stimuli

(D) Management stimuli

 

27- Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ??

(A) Software dependence

(B) Software development

(C) Software validation

(D) Software specification

 

28- Which of the following diagrams can help spot pointcuts ??

(A) Class diagram

(B) Object diagram

(C) Sequence diagram

(D) ER diagram

 

29- Which of these does not account for software failure ??

(A) Increasing Demand

(B) Low expectation

(C) Increasing Supply

(D) Less reliable and expensive

 

30- Which of the following is needed by Maintenance staff ??

(A) A specific type of equipment

(B) Maintenance record for each and every equipment item

(C) Check-in/check-out equipment for maintenance

(D) All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

31- The reason for software bugs and failures is due to what ??

(A) Software companies

(B) Software Developers

(C) Both Software companies and Developers

(D) All of the mentioned

 

32- How does Cleanroom software engineering differ from the conventional and object-oriented views ??

(A) It makes explicit use of statistical quality control

(B) It verifies design specification using a mathematically based proof of correctness

(C) It relies heavily on statistical use testing to uncover high-impact errors

(D) All of the mentioned

 

33- As per an IBM report, “31%of the project gets canceled before they are completed, 53% overrun their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics ??

(A) Lack of adequate training in software engineering

(B) Lack of software ethics and understanding

(C) Management issues in the company

(D) All of the mentioned

 

34- MTTF stands for ??

(A) mean-time-to-function

(B) mean-time-to-failure

(C) manufacture-time-to-function

(D) none of the mentioned

 

35- Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ??

(A) The product should be easy to use

(B) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible

(C) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the client

(D) It means that the product designed /created should be easily available

 

36- RTOS stands for ??

(A) real-life operating system

(B) real-time operating system

(C) real-time operating software

(D) real-life operating software

 

37- Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.” Here the term misuse refers to ??

(A) Unauthorized access to computer material

(B) Unauthorized modification of computer material

(C) Dissemination of viruses or other malware

(D) All of the mentioned

 

38- Which of the following is not a real-time architectural pattern ??

(A) Observe and React

(B) Environmental Control

(C) Embedded System

(D) Process Pipeline

 

39- What is Software ??

(A) Software is a set of programs

(B) Software is documentation and configuration of data

(C) Software is a set of programs, documentation & configuration of data

(D) None of the mentioned

 

40- The times by which stimuli must be processed and some response produced by the system is known as ??

(A) Compile-time

(B) Frequency

(C) Deadlines

(D) Execution time

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

41- Which of these is true ??

(A) Generic products and customized products are types of software products

(B) Generic products are produced by the organization and sold to open market

(C) Customized products are commissioned by a particular customer

(D) All of the mentioned

 

42- The switch to backup power must be completed within a deadline of ??

(A) 50 ms

(B) 55 ms

(C) 70 ms

(D) 100 ms

 

43- What are the attributes of good software ??

(A) Software maintainability

(B) Software functionality

(C) Software development

(D) Software maintainability & functionality

 

44- Which of the following is represented as an aspect that requests a login name and password ??

(A) Class

(B) Object

(C) User authentication

(D) All of the mentioned

 

45- Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by the Software Engineering Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ??

(A) PUBLIC

(B) PROFESSION

(C) PRODUCT

(D) ENVIRONMENT

 

46- Which of the following is a key principle of software design and implementation??

(A) Separation of concerns

(B) Writing aspects

(C) Finding code complexity

(D) None of the mentioned

 

47- Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should” ??

(A) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence

(B) not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers

(C) be dependent on their colleagues

(D) maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment

 

48- The average execution time of the power monitor process should be less than ??

(A) 1ms

(B) 10ms

(C) 100ms

(D) none of the mentioned

 

49- In terms of Issues related to professional responsibility ??

(A) Confidentiality

(B) Intellectual property rights

(C) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights

(D) Managing Client Relationships

 

50- An example of a system that may use a process pipeline is a ??

(A) High-speed data acquisition system

(B) Failure of a power supply in an embedded system

(C) Both High-speed data acquisition system AND Failure of a power supply in an embedded system

(D) None of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

51- Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below ??

(A) Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system

(B) Refusing to undertake a project

(C) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management

(D) All of the mentioned

 

52- Research and development in aspect-orientation have primarily focused on ??

(A) software re-engineering

(B) artificial programming

(C) aspect-oriented programming

(D) all of the mentioned

 

53- Which of the following is not a type of stakeholder concern ??

(A) Functional concerns

(B) Quality of service concerns

(C) Policy concern

(D) Non-functional concern

 

54- Efficiency in a software product does not include ??

(A) responsiveness

(B) licensing

(C) memory utilization

(D) processing time

 

55-Which of the following is a core concern in the medical record management system ??

(A) maintaining records of patients

(B) diagnose and treatments

(C) consultations

(D) all of the mentioned

 

56- The incorporation of advice code at the specified joinpoints by an aspect weaver is called ??

(A) aspect

(B) join point

(C) join point model

(D) weaving

 

57- Which of the following concerns best suits the following statement:” Internet banking system includes new customer requirements, account Requirements, customer management requirements, security requirements, recovery requirements, etc.” ??

(A) Functional concerns

(B) Quality of service concerns

(C) System concerns

(D) Cross-cutting concerns

 

58- Which of the following is a data problem ??

(A) hardware problem

(B) record organization problems

(C) heavy computational demands

(D) loss of comments

 

59- An event in an executing program where the advice associated with an aspect may be executed is known as ??

(A) aspect

(B) join point

(C) join point model

(D) pointcut

 

60- Which of the following is not a business goal of re-engineering ??

(A) Cost reduction

(B) Time reduction

(C) Maintainability

(D) None of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

61- What is connected to servers (typically powerful workstations or PCs) that play a dual role??

(A) Database

(B) Software

(C) Hardware

(D) None of the mentioned

 

62- Which of the following is not a module type ??

(A) Object modules

(B) Hardware modules

(C) Functional modules

(D) Process support modules

 

63- Which subsystem implements the requirements defined by the application ??

(A) UI

(B) DBMS

(C) Application subsystem

(D) None of the mentioned

 

64- Which of the following presentation is explained in the following statement:”An extension of the distributed presentation approach, primary database and application logic remain on the server, and data sent by the server is used by the client to prepare the user presentation ”  ??

(A) Local Presentation

(B) Distributed presentation

(C) Remote presentation

(D) All of the mentioned

 

65- Which of the following statements are incorrect with reference to web-based systems?? Web-based systems ??

(A) should be unscalable

(B) must be able to cope with uncertain, random heavy demands on services

(C) must be secure

(D) are subject to assorted legal, social, and ethical scrutiny

 

66- Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:” The client sends structured query language (SQL) requests to the server which is transmitted as messages across the net” ??

(A) File servers

(B) Database servers

(C) Client servers

(D) None of the mentioned

 

67- What kind of support is provided by the Repository Query CASE tool ??

(A) Editing text and diagrams

(B) Display of parts of the design texts

(C) Cross-referencing queries and requirements tracing

(D) Display of parts of the design texts AND Cross-referencing queries and requirements tracing

 

68- Which test do you infer from the following statement: “ The coordination and data management functions of the server are tested.” ??

(A) Server tests

(B) Application function tests

(C) Transaction tests

(D) Network communication tests

 

69- Which of the following is not a type of CASE tool ??

(A) Lower

(B) Classic

(C) Real

(D) Middle

 

70- “ A client is assigned all user presentation tasks and the processes associated with data entry ”. Which option supports the client’s situation ??

(A) Distributed logic

(B) Distributed presentation

(C) Remote presentation

(D) All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

71- What stores all changes and info related to the project from development through maintenance in CASE tools ??

(A) Database

(B) Repository

(C) Registers

(D) None of the mentioned

 

72- When a client application invokes a method contained within an object elsewhere in the system, CORBA uses dynamic invocation to ??

(A) obtain pertinent information about the desired method from the interface repository

(B) create a data structure with parameters to be passed to the object

(C) create a request for the object

(D) all of the mentioned

 

 

73- CASE stands for ??

(A) Cost Aided Software Engineering

(B) Computer-Aided Software Engineering

(C) Control Aided Software Engineering

(D) None of the mentioned

 

74- Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:” When one object invokes another independent object, a message is passed between the two objects. ”??

(A) Control couple

(B) Application object

(C) Data couple

(D) Database object

 

75- What kind of support is provided by the Code Generation CASE tool ??

(A) Cross-referencing queries and requirements tracing

(B) Transformation of design records into application software

(C) Compiling, interpreting, or applying interactive debugging code

(D) Transformation of design records into application software AND Compiling, interpreting, or applying interactive debugging code

 

76- What is used to pass SQL requests and associated data from one component to another ??

(A) Client/server SQL interaction

(B) Remote procedure calls

(C) SQL Injection

(D) All of the mentioned

 

77- What kind of support is provided by the Code Editing CASE tool ??

(A) Management of design documents and software code versions

(B) Transformation of design records into application software

(C) Compiling, interpreting, or applying interactive debugging code

(D) None of the mentioned

 

 

78- Which of the following is a drawback of using the CASE tool ??

(A) Standardization of notations and diagrams

(B) Communication between development team member

(C) Costs associated with the use of the tool

(D) Reduction of time and effort

 

79- Which of the following services is not provided by an object ??

(A) Activating & Deactivating Objects

(B) Security features

(C) Files implementing the entities identified within the ERD

(D) Registering object implementation

 

80- CASE tools are mainly used while developing which of the following methodologies??

(A) RAD

(B) JAD

(3) OO Approach

(4) All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

81- CORBA stands for ??

(A) Common Object Request Build Architecture

(B) Common Object Request Broker Architecture

(C) Common Object Request Break Architecture

(D) All of the mentioned

 

82- Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “ CASE tools and the target applications are isolated from physical storage so they are not affected when the hardware configuration is changed. ”  ??

(A) Non-redundant data storage

(B) Data independence

(C) Data dependence

(D) Ad hoc data queries and reports

 

83- Which of the following is an essential principle of architecture ?? 

(A) Consistency

(B) Reliability

(C) Scalability

(D) All of the mentioned

 

84- Which tools are used to modify online database systems ??

(A) Reverse engineering specification tools

(B) Code restructuring and analysis tools

(C) Test management tools

(D) online system re-engineering tools

 

85- Which of the following utilities is not a part of the Application Service Layer ??

(A) Policy implementation

(B) QoS

(C) Security

(D) Verify invoice

 

86- Which of the following term is best to define by the statement:” Each object is stored only once, but is accessible by all CASE tools that need it. ” ??

(A) Non-redundant data storage

(B) Data independence

(C) Transaction control

(D) Ad Hoc data queries and reports

 

87- How is SOA different from OO Architecture ??

(A) Strong coupling among objects

(B) Communications are prescriptive rather than being descriptive

(C) Data is separated from a service or behavior

(D) Data and methods are integrated into a single object

 

88- Which is the definition of objects in the database that leads directly to a standard approach for the creation of software engineering documents ??

(A) Document standardization

(B) Data integrity

(C) Information sharing

(D) Data/data integration

 

89- Which of the following utilities is not a part of the Business Service Layer ??

(A) Task centric service

(B) Wrapper Services

(C) Get account info

(D) Entity centric service

 

90- Which tools assist in the planning, development, and control in CASE ??

(A) Dynamic measurement

(B) Data acquisition

(C) Test management

(D) Cross-functional tools

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

91- Which architecture describes the various elements that support the implementation of services ??

(A) The Application Architecture

(B) The Service Architecture

(C) The Component Architecture

(D) None of the mentioned

 

92- Which environment demands specialized testing tools that exercise the graphical user interface and the network communications requirements for client and server ??

(A) Dynamic analysis

(B) Client/Server

(C) Re-engineering

(D) Test management

 

93- Which architecture will be built on top of an SOA ??

(A) The Application Architecture

(B) The Service Architecture

(C) The Component Architecture

(D) None of the mentioned

 

94- Database management software serves as a foundation for the establishment of a CASE database (repository) that we call ??

(A) project database

(B) system database

(C) analysis and design tools

(D) prototyping tools

 

95- Arrange the following activities in order to build an SOA ??

i. Virtualization through mediation.

ii. Track services with registries.

iii. Govern, secure and manage the services.

iv. Design for interoperability through the adoption of standards.

(A) i, ii, iii, iv

(B) iii, ii, i, iv

(C) ii, iii, i, iv

(D) ii, iii, iv, i

 

96- Which tools cross the bounds of the preceding categories ??

(A) Data acquisition

(B) Dynamic measurement

(C) Cross-functional tools

(D) Simulation

 

97- Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) is ??

(A) Strongly Coupled

(B) Loosely Coupled

(C) Strongly Cohesive

(D) Loosely Cohesive

 

98- What enables a software engineer to defined screen layout rapidly for interactive applications ??

(A) Analysis and design tools

(B) Tool kit

(C) Screen painters

(D) PRO/SIM tools

 

99- What specifies the behavior of a system or a part of a system ??

(A) Yellow box

(B) Clear box

(C) White box

(D) Black box

 

100- Which of the following is the software engineer’s primary characteristics ??

(A) A collection of useful tools that will help in every step of building a product

(B) An organized layout that enables tools to be found quickly and used efficiently

(C) A skilled artisan who understands how to use the tools in an effective manner

(D) All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

101- The transition functions that are implied by the state box are defined in ??

(A) Yellow box

(B) Clear box

(C) White box

(D) Black box

 

102- Extracting data items and objects, getting information on data flow, and understanding the existing data structures that have been implemented is sometimes called ??

(A) data analysis

(B) directionality

(C) data extraction

(D) client applications

 

103- What encapsulates state data and services in a manner that is analogous to objects ??

(A) State box

(B) Clean box

(C) White box

(D) Black box

 

104- The transformation of a system from one representational form to another is known as  ??

(A) Re-factoring

(B) Restructuring

(C) Forward engineering

(D) Both Re-factoring and Restructuring

 

105- Which of the following is required for Certification for cleanroom software engineering ??

(A) Sampling model

(B) Component model

(C) Certification model

(D) All of the mentioned

 

106- Reverse engineering is the process of deriving the system design and specification from its ??

(A) GUI

(B) Database

(C) Source code

(D) All of the mentioned

 

107- Cleanroom software engineering complies with the operational analysis principles by using a method called known as ??

(A) box structure specification

(B) referential transparency

(C) degenerative error correction

(D) none of the mentioned

 

108- Much of the information necessary to create a behavioral model can be obtained by observing the external manifestation of the existing ??

(A) candidate keys

(B) interface

(C) database structure

(D) none of the mentioned

 

109- Who was first to propose the Cleanroom philosophy in software engineering ??

(A) Mills

(B) Dyer

(C) Linger

(D) All of the Mentioned

 

110- Which of the following is not an objective of reverse engineering ??

(A) to reduce maintenance effort

(B) to cope with complexity

(C) to avoid side effects

(D) to assist migration to a CASE environment

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

111- Which of the following Cleanroom process teams develops a set of statistical tests to exercise software after development ??

(A) Specification team

(B) Development team

(C) Certification team

(D) All of the mentioned

 

112- Which of the following steps may not be used to define the existing data model as a precursor to re-engineering a new database model ??

(A) Build an initial object model

(B) Determine candidate keys

(C) Refine the tentative classes

(D) Discover user interfaces

 

113- Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:” For a component to be composable, all external interactions must take place through publicly defined interfaces ” ??

(A) Standardized

(B) Independent

(C) Composable

(D) Documented

 

114- What has become de rigueur for computer-based products and systems of every type ??

(A) GUIs

(B) Candidate keys

(C) Object model

(D) All of the mentioned

 

115- Which of the following is not a dimension of scalability ??

(A) Size

(B) Distribution

(C) Manageability

(D) Interception

 

116- In the reverse engineering process, what refers to the sophistication of the design information that can be extracted from the source code ??

(A) interactivity

(B) completeness

(C) abstraction level

(D) direction level

 

117- QoS stands for ??

(A) Quality of security

(B) Quality of the system

(C) Quality of service

(D) None of the mentioned

 

118- Forward engineering is also known as ??

(A) extract abstractions

(B) renovation

(C) reclamation

(D) both renovation and reclamation

 

119- Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:” The operations on each side of the interface have the same name but their parameter types or the number of parameters are different. ” ??

(A) Parameter incompatibility

(B) Operation incompleteness

(C) Operation incompatibility

(D) None of the mentioned

 

120- The core of reverse engineering is an activity called ??

(A) restructure code

(B) directionality

(C) extract abstractions

(D) interactivity

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

121- A component model defines standards for ??

(A) properties

(B) methods

(C) mechanisms

(D) all of the mentioned

 

122- Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique ??

(A) Data re-engineering

(B) Refactoring

(C) Restructuring

(D) None of the mentioned

 

123- Which of the following is a feature of CBSE ??

(A) It increases the quality

(B) CBSE shortens the delivery time

(C) CBSE increases productivity

(D) All of the mentioned

 

124- Which of these benefits can be achieved when the software is restructured ??

(A) Higher quality programs

(B) Reduced maintenance effort

(C) Software easier to test

(D) All of the mentioned

 

125- Which of the following is not an example of component technology ??

(A) EJB

(B) COM+

(C) .NET

(D) None of the mentioned

 

126- BPR stands for ??

(A) Business process re-engineering

(B) Business product re-engineering

(C) Business process requirements

(D) None of the mentioned

 

127- Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “ The names of the operations in the ‘provides’ and ‘requires’ interfaces are different. ” ??

(A) Parameter incompatibility

(B) Operation incompleteness

(C) Operation incompatibility

(D) None of the mentioned

 

128- Reverse engineering of data focuses on ??

(A) Internal data structures

(B) Database structures

(C) ALL of the mentioned

(D) None of the mentioned

 

129 – When composing reusable components that have not been written for your application, you may need to write adaptors or “glue code” to reconcile the differences ??

(A) Component modules

(B) Component composition

(C) Component model

(D) Component interfaces

 

130- What are the problems with re-structuring ??

(A) Loss of comments

(B) Loss of documentation

(C) Heavy computational demands

(D) All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

131- What defines a set of standards for components, including interface standards, usage standards, and deployment standards ??

(A) Component-based software engineering

(B) Component composition

(C) Component model

(D) Component interfaces

 

132- When does one decide to re-engineer a product ??

(A) when tools to support restructuring are disabled

(B) when the system crashes frequently

(C) when hardware or software support becomes obsolete

(D) subsystems of a larger system require few maintenances

 

133- What is a reuse-based approach to defining, implementing, and composing loosely coupled independent components into systems ??

(A) Component-based software engineering

(B) Component composition

(C) Component model

(D) Component interfaces

 

134- Which of the following is not an example of a business process ??

(A) designing a new product

(B) hiring an employee

(C) purchasing services

(D) testing software

 

135- A distributed system must defend itself against what ??

(A) Modification

(B) Interruption

(C) Fabrication

(D) All of the mentioned

 

136- Which web app attribute is defined by the statement:” The quality and aesthetic nature of content remain an important determinant of the quality of a WebApp ” ??

(A) Availability

(B) Data-driven

(C) Content sensitive

(D) Continuous evolution

 

137- Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “ In a distributed system, several processes may operate at the same time on separate computers on the network.” ??

(A) Concurrency

(B) Openness

(C) Resource sharing

(D) Fault tolerance

 

138- Which of the following is a risk associated with using hypertext in web applications ??

(A) Loss of sense of locality and direction

(B) Cognitive overload for users

(C) All of the mentioned

(D) None of the mentioned

 

139- In Java what is comparable with, though not identical to RPCs ??

(A) Remote Method Invocations

(B) Operating System

(C) Client-server computing

(D) None of the mentioned

 

140- What category of the web-based system would you assign to discussion groups ??

(A) Collaborative work

(B) Online communities

(C) Web portals

(D) Workflow-oriented

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

141- Which architecture is used when there is a high volume of transactions to be processed by the server ??

(A) Multi-tier client-server architecture

(B) Master-slave architecture

(C) Distributed component architecture

(D) Peer-to-peer architecture

 

142 – If the user queries a collection of large databases and extracts information from the web app, the web app is categorized under ??

(A) Service-oriented app

(B) Database access app

(C) Portal app

(D) Data warehousing app

 

143- What is a way of providing functionality on a remote server with client access through a web browser ??

(A) SaaS

(B) SOA

(C) Configurability

(D) Both SaaS and Configurability

 

144- Which analysis is a part of the Analysis model of the web engineering process framework ??

(A) Content Analysis

(B) Interaction Analysis

(C) Functional Analysis

(D) All of the mentioned

 

145- What depends on there being a clear separation between the presentation of information and the computations that create and process that information ?

(A) Master-slave architectures

(B) Client-server systems

(C) Two-tier client-server architecture

(D) Both Master-slave architectures AND Client-server systems

 

146- Which web app attribute is defined by the statement:” A large number of users may access the Web App at one time. ” ??

(A) Unpredictable load

(B) Performance

(C) Concurrency

(D) Network intensiveness

 

147- Which architecture are reliant on middle-ware ??

(A) Multi-tier client-server architecture

(B) Master-slave architecture

(C) Distributed component architecture

(D) Peer-to-peer architecture

 

148- W3C stands for ??

(A) World Wide Web Consortium

(B) World Wide Web Collaboration

(C) World Wide Web Community

(D) None of the mentioned

 

149- Which of the following is a way of making a statement about the elements of a set that is true for every member of the set ??

(A) Set

(B) Sequence

(C) Universal quantification

(D) Both Set and Sequence

 

150- What category of the web-based system would you assign to electronic shopping ??

(A) Informational

(B) Interactive

(C) Transaction-oriented

(D) Workflow-oriented

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

151- Which architecture decentralized architectures in which there are no distinguished clients and servers ??

(A) Multi-tier client-server architecture

(B) Master-slave architecture

(C) Distributed component architecture

(D) Peer-to-peer architecture

 

152- Which of the following option is not provided by formal methods ??

(A) providing frameworks

(B) verifying systems

(C) provide investors

(D) both providing frameworks and verifying systems

 

153- What defines the circumstances in which a particular operation is valid ??

(A) Contradictions

(B) Post-condition

(C) Vagueness

(D) None of the mentioned

 

154- Which process model should be used in virtually all situations of web engineering ??

(A) Incremental Model

(B) Waterfall Model

(C) Spiral Model

(D) None of the mentioned

 

155- What of a formal specification language is often based on a syntax that is derived from standard set theory notation and predicate calculus ??

(A) semantic domain

(B) syntactic domain

(C) sequence

(D) set

 

156- ERP stands for ??

(A) Enterprise Research Planning

(B) Enterprise Resource Planning

(C) Enterprise Resource Package

(D) Enterprise Research Package

 

157- Which of the following is essential for success, when formal methods are used for the first time ??

(A) Expert training

(B) Consulting

(C) Prerequisite knowledge

(D) Both Expert training and Consulting

 

158- All the operations in a transaction need to be completed before the database changes are made ??

(A) functional

(B) available to the users

(C) permanent

(D) none of the mentioned

 

159- Which specification language indicates how the language represents system requirements ??

(A) semantic domain

(B) syntactic domain

(C) sequence

(D) set

 

160- Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as ??

(A) software-based

(B) transaction-based

(C) server-based

(D) client-based

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

161- Which of the following provides a concise, unambiguous, and consistent method for documenting system requirements ??

(A) CMM

(B) ISO-9001

(C) CASE tools

(D) Formal methods

 

162- A language-processing system may translate an XML data description into what ??

(A) a machine code

(B) an alternative XML representation

(C) machine code and alternative XML representation

(D) a software module

 

163- Which of the following occurs often due to the bulkiness of a system specification document ??

(A) Contradictions

(B) Ambiguities

(C) Vagueness

(D) Incompleteness

 

164- What translates a natural or an artificial language into another representation of that language and, for programming languages also execute the resulting code ??

(A) ERP systems

(B) Transaction-based information systems

(C) Language processing systems

(D) None of the mentioned

 

165- What are statements that can be interpreted in a number of ways ??

(A) Contradictions

(B) Ambiguities

(C) Vagueness

(D) Comments

 

166- Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s) ??

(A) Model-View-Controller

(B) Layered Architecture

(C) Client-server

(D) All of the mentioned

 

167- Frameworks are an effective approach to reuse but are what to introduce into software development processes ??

(A) difficult

(B) expensive

(C) unreliable

(D) difficult and expensive

 

168- Transaction processing systems may be organized as what architecture with system components responsible for input, processing, and output ??

(A) Repository

(B) Client–server

(C) Model-View-Controller

(D) Pipe and Filter

 

169- Which option supports the statement:” Most web frameworks now provide AJAX support ” ??

(A) Session Management

(B) Security

(C) User interaction

(D) Database support

 

170- Which of the following examples is/are models of application architectures ??

(A) a means of assessing components for reuse

(B) a design checklist

(C) a vocabulary for talking about types of applications

(D) all of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

171- Which framework’s applications are difficult to deal with ??

(A) MVC pattern

(B) Web application frameworks

(C) Debugging framework

(D) None of the mentioned

 

172- Control systems may make use of the Environmental Control pattern, which is a general control pattern that includes this process??

(A) sensor

(B) actuator

(C) pipeline

(D) both sensor and actuator

 

173- MVC framework includeS ??

(A) Observer pattern

(B) Strategy pattern

(C) Composite pattern

(D) All of the mentioned

 

174- Which of the following is applicable on software radio ??

(A) Environmental Control

(B) Process Pipeline

(C) Distributed system

(D) None of the mentioned

 

175- Which frameworks support the development of system infrastructures such as communications, user interfaces, and compilers ??

(A) Middleware integration frameworks

(B) System infrastructure framework

(C) Enterprise application frameworks

(D) Web application frameworks

 

176- A monitoring system examines its environment through ??

(A) operating system

(B) communication

(C) set of sensors

(D) none of the mentioned

 

177- Which of the following is not a benefit of software reuse ??

(A) Standards compliance

(B) Increased Reliability

(C) Reduced Process risk

(D) Maintaining a component library

 

178- ETL stands for ??

(A) Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

(B) Data Execution Transformation & Loading

(C) Extraction Transformation & Loading

(D) Execution Transformation & Loading

 

179- Which category the following statement belongs to,” Frameworks don’t usually include a database but rather assume that a separate database such as MySQL ” ??

(A) Session management

(B) Security

(C) User interaction

(D) Database support

 

180- What can be associated with a separate processor or core, so that the processing steps can be carried out in parallel ??

(A) Process Pipeline

(B) Environmental Control

(C) Observe and React

(D) None of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

181- Which category the following statement belongs to,” Classes to create and manage sessions are usually part of a WAF ” ??

(A) Session management

(B) Security

(C) User interaction

(D) Database support

 

182- An example of a system that may use a process pipeline is a high-speed ??

(A) data distributing system

(B) data acquisition system

(C) data collector system

(D) none of the mentioned

 

183- The MVC pattern was originally proposed in the 1980s as an approach to ??

(A) Web application frameworks

(B) Middleware integration frameworks

(C) Web application frameworks

(D) GUI design

 

184- Which of these following sensors is useful as part of a burglar alarm system for commercial buildings ??

(A) Movement detector

(B) Door sensor

(C) Window sensor

(D) All of the mentioned

 

185- In which of the following language the frameworks will not work ??

(A) C#

(B) Ruby

(C) PHP

(D) Java

 

186- Which of the following are not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used ??

(A) Asynchronous communication

(B) Observe and React

(C) Environmental Control

(D) Process Pipeline

 

187- ERP stands for ??

(A) Effective Reuse Planning

(B) Enterprise Resource Planning

(C) Effective Research Planning

(D) None of the mentioned

 

188- The UML was designed for describing ??

(A) object-oriented systems

(B) architectural design

(C) SRS

(D) Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

 

189- Which of the following is a generic structure that is extended to create a more specific subsystem or application ??

(A) Software reuse

(B) Object-oriented programming language

(C) Framework

(D) None of the mentioned

 

190- Which of the following is an architectural conflict ??

(A) Using large-grain components improves performance but reduces maintainability

(B) Introducing redundant data improves availability but makes security more difficult

(C) Localizing safety-related features usually means more communication so degraded performance

(D) All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

191- What are generic application systems that may be designed to support a particular business type, activity, or sometimes a complete enterprise ??

(A) COTS-solution systems

(B) COTS-integrated systems

(C) ERP systems

(D) Both COTS-solution and COTS-integrated systems

 

192- What describes how a set of interacting components can share data ??

(A) model-view-controller

(B) architecture pattern

(C) repository pattern

(D) none of the mentioned

 

193- Which framework class includes standards and classes that support component communication and information exchange ??

(A) System infrastructure frameworks

(B) Middleware integration frameworks

(C) Enterprise application frameworks

(D) MVC

 

194- Which of the following view shows that the system is composed of interacting processes at a run time ??

(A) physical

(B) development

(C) logical

(D) process

 

195- An ordering system may be adapted to cope with a centralized ordering process in one company and a distributed process in another. ” Which category does this example belong to ??

(A) Process specialization

(B)Platform specialization

(C) Environment specialization

(D) Functional specialization

 

196- Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions ??

(A) type of application

(B) distribution of the system

(C) architectural styles

(D) testing the system

 

197- The open-source movement has meant that there is a huge reusable code base available at ??

(A) free of cost

(B) low cost

(C) high cost

(D) a short period of time

 

198- Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-based systems ??

(A) architecture

(B) repository pattern

(C) model-view-controller

(D) different operating system

 

199- NET is specific to which platform ??

(A) Java

(B) Mac-OS

(C) Microsoft

(D) LINUX

 

200- Which view in the architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as objects or object classes ??

(A) physical

(B) development

(C) logical

(D)process

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

201- COTS product reuse means ??

(A) Class and function libraries that implement commonly used abstractions are available for reuse

(B) Shared components are woven into an application at different places when the program is compiled

(C) Large-scale systems that encapsulate generic business functionality and rules are configured for an organization

(D) Systems are developed by configuring and integrating existing application systems

 

202- Consider the example and categorize it accordingly, “ A pattern-matching system developed as part of a text-processing system may be reused in a database management system ” ??

(A) Application system reuse

(B) Component reuse

(C) Object and function reuse

(D) None of the mentioned

 

203- Which view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed across the processors in the system ??

(A) physical

(B) logical

(C) process

(D) all of the mentioned

 

204- COTS stands for ??

(A) Commercial Off-The-Shelf systems

(B) Commercial-Off-The-Shelf states

(C) Commercial Off-The-System state

(D) None of the mentioned

 

205- Which of the following is not included in SRS ??

(A) Performance

(B) Functionality

(C) Design solutions

(D) External Interfaces

 

206- Which of the following is a dynamic model that shows how the system interacts with its environment as it is used ??

(A) system context model

(B) interaction model

(C) environmental model

(D) both system context and interaction

 

207- What are the two viewpoints discussed in Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE) ??

(A) Functional, Non-Functional

(B) User, Developer

(C) Known, Unknown

(D) All of the mentioned

 

208- Which of the following is a structural model that demonstrates the other systems in the environment of the system being developed ??

(A) system context model

(B) interaction model

(C) environmental model

(D)both system context and interaction

 

209- Choose a framework that corresponds to the Issue-Based Information System (IBIS) ??

(A) Idea -> Question -> Argument

(B) Question -> Idea -> Argument

(C) Issue -> Position -> Justification

(D) Both Question -> Idea -> Argument and Issue -> Position -> Justification

 

210- Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed object-oriented design ??

(A) Designing system architecture

(B) Developing design models

(C) Specifying interfaces

(D) Developing a debugging system

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

211- Which one of the following is not an actor in JAD sessions ??

(A) User

(B) Tester

(C) Scribe

(D) Sponsor

 

212- Which of the following come under system control ??

(A) Reconfigure

(B) Shutdown

(C) Powersave

(D) All of the mentioned

 

213- Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques removes the poor understanding of the application domain and lack of common terminology between the users and the analysts ??

(A) FODA

(B) CORE

(C) IBIS

(D) Prototyping

 

214- Which model shows the flow of object interactions ??

(A) Sequence model

(B) Subsystem model

(C) Dynamic model

(D) Both Sequence and Dynamic model

 

215- IBIS is a more structured approach than CORE ??

(A) True

(B) False

 

216- We use what, where various parts of system use are identified and analyzed in turn ??

(A) tangible entities

(B) scenario-based analysis

(C) design-based analysis

(D) none of the mentioned

 

217- What of the following is not an output of a JAD session ??

(A) Context Diagrams

(B) DFDs

(C) ER model

(D) UML diagrams

 

218- If the system state is Shutdown then it can respond to which of the following message ??

(A) restart()

(B) reconfigure()

(C) powerSave()

(D) all of the mentioned

 

219- Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging, etc. in library management. What type of management requirement is being depicted here ??

(A) Enduring

(B) Volatile

(C) Both Enduring & Volatile

(D) All of the mentioned

 

220- Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their relationships ??

(A) Sequence model

(B) Subsystem model

(C) Dynamic model

(D) Structural model

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

221- Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development ??

(A) True

(B) False

 

222- Which message is received so that the system moves to the Testing state, then the Transmitting state, before returning to the Running state ??

(A) signalStatus()

(B) remoteControl()

(C) reconfigure()

(D) reportStatus()

 

223- Which two requirements are given priority during the Requirement Management of a product ??

(A) User and Developer

(B) Functional and Non-functional

(C) Enduring and Volatile

(D) All of the mentioned

 

224- A description of each function presented in the DFD is contained in a ??

(A) data flow

(B) process specification

(C) control specification

(D) datastore

 

225- Why is Requirements Management Important ?? It is due to the changes ??

(A) to the environment

(B) in technology

(C) in customer’s expectations

(D) in all of the mentioned

 

226- A data model contains ??

(A) data object

(B) attributes

(C) relationships

(D) all of the mentioned

 

227- Requirements traceability is one of the most important parts of requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management ??

(A) True

(B) False

 

228- Which of the following are not the primary objectives in the analysis model ??

(A) describing the customer complaints

(B) establishing a basis for the creation of a software design

(C) defining a set of requirements that can be validated once the software is built

(D) none of the mentioned

 

229- Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ??

(A) RTM

(B) DOORS

(C) Rational Suite

(D) RDD 100

 

230- Which diagram indicates the behavior of the system as a consequence of external events ??

(A) data flow diagram

(B) state transition diagram

(C) control specification diagram

(D) workflow diagram

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

231- What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas, or model transformations ??

(A) Automatic Link Detection

(B) Documentation Support

(C) Graphical Representation

(D) Automatic Link Creation and Change

 

232- What defines the properties of a data object and takes on one of the three different characteristics ??

(A) data object

(B) attributes

(C) relationships

(D) data object and attributes

 

233- Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding throughout a project ??

(A) True

(B) False

 

234- What of a relationship is 0 if there is no explicit need for the relationship to occur or the relationship is optional ??

(A) modality

(B) cardinality

(C) entity

(D) structured analysis

 

235- Which of the following is a requirement management activity ??

(A) Investigation

(B) Design

(C) Construction and Test

(D) All of the mentioned

 

236- What contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of behavior ??

(A) data flow diagram

(B) state transition diagram

(C) control specification

(D) workflow diagram

 

237- According to a statistical report: “ over 30% of all software projects are canceled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features ”. What must be the reason for such a situation ??

(A) Poor change management

(B) Poor requirements management

(C) Poor quality control

(D) All of the mentioned

 

238- What are a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output ??

(A) data flow diagram

(B) state transition diagram

(C) control specification

(D) workflow diagram

 

239- How many steps are involved in Feature-Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) ??

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Five

 

240- What enables the software engineer to develop models of the information domain and functional domain at the same time ??

(A) data flow diagram

(B) state transition diagram

(C) control specification

(D) activity diagram

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

241- How is CORE different from IBIS ??

(A) Iterative in nature

(B) Redundancies are removed

(C) It is a simple and easier method to use

(D) Consistency problems are addressed in CORE

 

242- Which of the following is not a construct ??

(A) sequence

(B) condition

(C) repetition

(D) selection

 

243- What is the major drawback of CORE ??

(A) Requirements are comprehensive

(B) NFRs are not given enough importance

(C) Role of the analyst is passive

(D) All of the mentioned

 

244- What is a pidgin (a simplified version of a language that develops as a means of communication between two or more groups that do not have a language in common) ??

(A) program design language

(B)structured English

(C) pseudocode

(D) all of the mentioned

 

245- A narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ??

(A) True

(B) False

 

246- A software component ??

(A) Implements some functionality

(B) Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

(C) Communicates through its interfaces only

(D) All of the mentioned

 

247- How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ??

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

 

248- Which of the following steps is applied to develop a decision table ??

(A) List all actions that can be associated with a specific procedure

(B) List all conditions during execution of the procedure

(C) Define rules by indicating what action(s) occurs for a set of conditions

(D) All of the mentioned

 

249- Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ??

(A) Problem of scope

(B) Problem of understanding

(C) Problem of volatility

(D) All of the mentioned

 

250- Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: ” The ability to represent local and global data is an essential element of component-level design.” ?

(A) Data representation

(B) Logic verification

(C) “Code-to” ability

(D) Automatic processing

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

251- Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process ??

(A) True

(B) False

 

252- Which diagram evolved from a desire to develop a procedural design representation that would not allow violation of the structured constructs ??

(A) State transition diagram

(B) Box diagram

(C) ER diagram

(D) None of the mentioned

 

253- Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement: “ Conformity to a standard is maintained ” ??

(A) Correct

(B) Complete

(C) Consistent

(D) Modifiable

 

254- Which of the following is not a characteristic of the box diagram ??

(A) functional domain

(B) arbitrary transfer of control is impossible

(C) recursion is easy to represent

(D) providing a notation that translates actions and conditions

 

255- Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ??

i. SRS is written by customer

ii. SRS is written by a developer

iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer

(A) Only i is true

(B) Both ii and iii are true

(C) All are true

(D) None of the mentioned

 

256- What executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task until the condition fails ??

(A) repeat until

(B) condition

(C) do while tests

(D) if then-else

 

257-Consider the following Statement: “ The data set will contain an end of file character.” What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ??

(A) Consistent

(B) Non-verifiable

(C) Correct

(D) Ambiguous

 

258- What is represented as two processing boxes connected by an line (arrow) of control ??

(A) Repetition

(B) Sequence

(C) Condition

(D) None of the mentioned

 

259- Which of the following is included in SRS ??

(A) Cost

(B) Design Constraints

(C) Staffing

(D) Delivery Schedule

 

260- Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control ??

(A) Provide for flexible interaction

(B) Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

(C) Show technical internals from the casual user

(D) Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

261- Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard ??

i. General description

ii. Introduction

iii. Index

iv. Appendices

v. Specific Requirements

(A) iii, i, ii,v, iv

(B) iii, ii, i, v, iv

(C) ii, i, v, iv, iii

(D) iii, i, ii

 

262- Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “ Notation that can be input directly into a computer-based development system offers significant benefits.” ??

(A) Machine readability

(B) Maintainability

(C) Structure enforcement

(D) Overall simplicity

 

263- Consider the following Statement: “ The product should have a good human interface. ”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ??

(A) Consistent

(B) Non-Verifiable

(C) Correct

(D) Ambiguous

 

264- Which of the following is the golden rule for interface design ??

(A) Place the user in control

(B) Reduce the user’s memory load

(C) Make the interface consistent

(D) All of the mentioned

 

265- Consider the following Statement: “ The output of a program shall be given within 10 secs of event X 10% of the time.” What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ??

(A) Consistent

(B) Verifiable

(C) Non-verifiable

(D) Correct

 

266- Which of the following is not a user interface design process ??

(A) User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

(B) Interface design

(C) Knowledgeable, frequent users

(D) Interface validation

 

267- The SRS document is also known as what specification ??

(A) black-box

(B) white-box

(C) grey-box

(D) none of the mentioned

 

268- Which of the following option is not considered by the Interface design ??

(A) the design of interfaces between software components

(B) the design of interfaces between the software and human producers and consumers of information

(C) the design of the interface between two computers

(D) all of the mentioned

 

269- The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if ??

(A) its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while retaining the style and structure

(B) every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet

(C) every requirement stated therein is verifiable

(D) no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other

 

270- What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the software ??

(A) design model

(B) user’s model

(C) mental image

(D) system image

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

271- Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements Specification (SRS) ??

(A) Verifiable

(B) Ambiguous

(C) Complete

(D) Traceable

 

272- When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on what can be significant ??

(A) short-term memory

(B) shortcuts

(C) objects that appear on the screen

(D) all of the mentioned

 

273- What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in the 1970s is used for managing requirement elicitation ??

(A) JAD

(B) Traceability

(C) FAST

(D) Both JAD and Traceability

 

274- A software might allow a user to interact via ??

(A) keyboard commands

(B) mouse movement

(C) voice recognition commands

(D) all of the mentioned

 

275- What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ??

(A) Primary

(B) Secondary

(C) Ternary

(D) Both Primary and Secondary

 

276- What establishes the profile of end-users of the system ??

(A) design model

(B) user’s model

(C) mental image

(D) system image

 

277- What are the types of requirements in Quality Function Deployment (QFD) ??

(A) Known, Unknown, Undreamed

(B) User, Developer

(C) Functional, Non-Functional

(D) Normal, Expected, Exciting

 

 

278- Which of the following is not a part of a test design document ??

(A) Test Plan

(B) Test Design Specification

(C) Test Case Specification

(D) Test Log

 

279- What is the first step of requirement elicitation ??

(A) Identifying Stakeholder

(B) Listing out Requirements

(C) Requirements Gathering

(D) All of the mentioned

 

280- A set of inputs, execution preconditions, and expected outcomes is known as a ??

(A) Test plan

(B) Test case

(C) Test document

(D) Test Suite

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

281- What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modeling to give a functional view of the system ??

(A) Object-Oriented Design (by Booch)

(B) Use Cases (by Jacobson)

(C) Fusion (by Coleman)

(D) Object Modeling Technique (by Rumbaugh)

 

282- What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system, coupled with all supporting information that describes system syntax and semantics ??

(A) mental image

(B) interface design

(C) system image

(D) interface validation

 

283- Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner ??

i. Consolidation

ii. Prioritization

iii. Requirements Gathering

iv. Evaluation

(A) iii, i, ii, iv

(B) iii, iv, ii, i

(C) iii, ii, iv, i

(D) ii, iii, iv, i

 

284- Which of the following is a black box testing strategy ??

(A) All Statements Coverage

(B) Control Structure Coverage

(C) Cause-Effect Graphs

(D) All Paths Coverage

 

285- Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation ??

(A) Unit Testing

(B) Integration Testing

(C) Acceptance Testing

(D) Regression Testing

 

286- Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ??

(A) Availability

(B) Testability

(C) Usability

(D) Flexibility

 

287- What do you understand by V&V in software testing ??

(A) Verified Version

(B) Version Validation

(C) Verification and Validation

(D) Version Verification

 

288- Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements ??

(A) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform

(B) It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and standardized

(C) The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for which the system was intended

(D) None of the mentioned

 

289- Which test refers to the retesting of a unit, integration, and system after modification, in order to ascertain that the change has not introduced new faults ??

(A) Regression Test

(B) Smoke Test

(C) Alpha Test

(D) Beta Test

 

290- Which one of the following is a functional requirement ??

(A) Maintainability

(B) Portability

(C) Robustness

(D) None of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

291- In which test design each input is tested at both ends of its valid range and just outside its valid range ??

(A) Boundary value testing

(B) Equivalence class partitioning

(C) Boundary value testing AND Equivalence class partitioning

(D) Decision tables

 

292- “ Consider a system where a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company. ” What kind of a requirement the system is providing ??

(A) Functional

(B) Non-Functional

(C) Known Requirement

(D) None of the mentioned

 

293- When does the testing process stop??

(A) When resources (time and budget) are over

(B) When some coverage is reached

(C) When the quality criterion is reached

(D) Testing never ends

 

294- Do functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system ??

(A) True

(B) False

 

295- Specifying a set of test cases or test paths for each item to be tested at that level is known as ??

(A) Test case generation

(B) Test case design

(C) ALL of the mentioned

(D) None of the mentioned

 

296- How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ??

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Five

 

297- You want to avoid multiple inheritances. Which design pattern would you choose ??

(A) Abstraction-Occurrence Pattern

(B) Player-Role Pattern

(C) General Hierarchy Pattern

(D) Singleton Pattern

 

298- What are the four dimensions of Dependability ??

(A) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility

(B) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security

(C) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety

(D) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability

 

299- In the factory method pattern, the framework must instantiate classes but it only knows about the abstract classes, which it cannot initiate. How would one solve this problem ??

(A) encapsulating the knowledge of which document subclass is to be created and

(B) moving this knowledge out of the framework

(C) instantiating the application-specific documents without knowing their class

(D) all of the mentioned

 

300- Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ??

(A) Use Cases

(B) Entity Relationship Diagram

(C) State Transition Diagram

(D) Activity Diagram

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

301- Which design pattern defines one-to-many dependency among objects ??

(A) Singleton pattern

(B) Facade Pattern

(C) Observer pattern

(D) Factory method pattern

 

302- How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ??

(A) Three

(B) Four

(C) Five

(D) Six

 

303- Which pattern prevents one from creating more than one instance of a variable ??

(A) Factory Method

(B) Singleton

(C) Observer

(D) None of the mentioned

 

304- Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project ??

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Depends upon the size of the project

(D) None of the mentioned

 

305- Which of the following is a design pattern ??

(A) Behavioral

(B) Structural

(C) Abstract Factory

(D) All of the mentioned

 

306- The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of three perspectives or views. What is that perspective or view ??

(A) Developer

(B) User

(C) Non-Functional

(D) Physical

 

307- The recurring aspects of designs are called design ??

(A) patterns

(B) documents

(C) structures

(D) methods

 

308- Coad and Yourdon suggested which selection characteristics should be used as an analyst considers each potential object for inclusion in the requirement analysis model ??

(A) Three

(B) Four

(C) Five

(D) Six

 

309- You want to minimize development cost by reusing methods? Which design pattern would you choose ??

(A) Adapter Pattern

(B) Singleton Pattern

(C) Delegation pattern

(D) Immutable Pattern

 

310- Starting from least to most important, choose the order of stakeholder ??

i. Managers

ii. Entry level Personnel

iii. Users

iv. Middle-level stakeholder

(A) i, ii, iv, iii

(B) i, ii, iii, iv

(C) ii, iv, i, iii

(D) All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

311- PRD stands for ??

(A) Product Requirement Document

(B) Project Requirement Document

(C) Product Restrictions Document

(D) None of the mentioned

 

312- Requirements should specify ‘ what’ but not ‘ how ’ ??

(A) True

(B) False

 

313- The use of design patterns for the development of object-oriented software has important implications for ??

(A) Component-based software engineering

(B) Reusability in general

(C) All of the mentioned

(D) None of the mentioned

 

314- Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process ??

(A) True

(B) False

 

315- Which mechanism is applied to use a design pattern in an OO system ??

(A) Inheritance

(B) Composition

(C) All of the mentioned

(D) None of the mentioned

 

316- What are the two issues of Requirement Analysis ??

(A) Performance, Design

(B) Stakeholder, Developer

(C) Functional, Non-Functional

(D) None of the mentioned

 

317- How many diagrams are here in Unified Modelling Language ??

(A) six

(B) seven

(C) eight

(D) nine

 

318- Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis ??

(A) True

(B) False

 

319- Interaction Diagram is a combined term for what ??

(A) Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram

(B) Activity Diagram + State Chart Diagram

(C) Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram

(D) None of the mentioned

 

320- How many feasibility studies are conducted in Requirement Analysis ??

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) None of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

321- Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a modeled system at a specific time ??

(A) Sequence Diagram

(B) Collaboration Diagram

(C) Class Diagram

(D) Object Diagram

 

322- Choose the correct statement on how NFRs integrates with Rational Unified Process ??

(A) System responds within 4 seconds on average to local user requests and changes in the environment

(B) System responds within 4 seconds on average to remote user requests and changes in the environment

(C) All of the mentioned

(D) None of the mentioned

 

323- Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view ??

(A) Collaboration

(B) Use case

(C) Statechart

(D) Activity

 

324- According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S ??

(A) stability

(B) Speed Efficiency

(C) Serviceability

(D) Installability

 

325- Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: ” a structural relationship that specifies that objects of one thing are connected to objects of another ” ??

(A) Association

(B) Aggregation

(C) Realization

(D) Generalization

 

326- Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR) ??

(A) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or softwarE. quality

(B) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

(C) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

(D) Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

 

327- Classes and interfaces are a part of what ??

(A) Structural things

(B) Behavioral things

(C) Grouping things

(D) Annotational things

 

328- Arrange the steps in order to represent the conducting of Wide band Delphi Technique ??

i. Conduct a group discussion

ii. Conduct another group discussion

iii. Present experts with a problem

iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously

v. Iterate until consensus is reached

vi. Feedback a summary of result to each expert

(A) i, iii, ii, iv, v, vi

(B) iii, i, ii, iv, v, vi

(c) i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v

(D) iii, i, iv, vi, ii, v

 

329- Which things are dynamic parts of UML models ??

(A) Structural things

(B) Behavioral things

(C) Grouping things

(D) Annotational things

 

330- How many phases are there in Brainstorming ??

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

331- What is a collection of operations that specify a service of a class or component ??

(A) Use Case

(B) Actor

(C) Interface

(D) Relationship

 

332- Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application Specification Techniques) meeting ??

(A) System Analyst

(B) Scribe

(C) Facilitator

(D) Manager

 

333- What can be requested from any object of the class to affect behavior ??

(A) object

(B) attribute

(C) operation

(D) instance

 

334- Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as an elicitation technique ??

(A) It incorporates human element into design

(B) SSM is in its infant stage

(C) SSM is suitable for new systems

(D) Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, Issue Resolution, and Reorganization support SSM

 

335- Which diagram in UML emphasizes the time-ordering of messages ??

(A) Activity

(B) Sequence

(C) Collaboration

(D) Class

 

336- Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques is applicable to messy, changing and ill-defined problem situations ??

(A) Quality Function Deployment (QFD)

(B) Prototyping

(C) Soft Systems Methodology (SSM)

(D) Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE)

 

337- If you are working on real-time process control applications or systems that involve concurrent processing, you would use a ??

(A) Activity diagram

(B) Sequence diagram

(C) Statechart diagram

(D) Object diagram

 

338- Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which of the following is not an example of an Expected Requirement ??

(A) Ease of software installation

(B) Overall operational correctness and reliability

(C) Specific system functions

(D) Quality graphical display

 

339- Which things in UML are the explanatory parts of UML models ??

(A) Structural things

(B) Behavioral things

(C) Grouping things

(D) Annotational things

 

340- To ensure that a given root definition is rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster team proposed several criteria that are summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems Methodology (SSM). Which of the following alphabet is representing an entirely different meaning to SSM ??

(A) C – Customer

(B) A – Actor

(C) T – Transformation

(D) E – ER Model

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

341- What refers to the value associated with a specific attribute of an object and to any actions or side ??

(A) Object

(B) State

(C) Interface

(D) None of the mentioned

 

342- QFD works best if it has management commitment ??

(A) True

(B) False

 

343- Which diagram shows the configuration of run-time processing elements ??

(A) Deployment diagram

(B) Component diagram

(C) Node diagram

(D) ER-diagram

 

344- How is the throwaway prototype different from the evolutionary prototype ??

(A) It involves successive steps

(B) It involves just one task

(C) The prototype is built with the idea that it will eventually be converted into the final system

(D) It has a shorter development time

 

345- A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development ??

A. True
B. False

 

346- What is a physical element that exists at runtime in UML ??

A. A node
B. An interface
C. An activity
D. None of the mentioned

 

347- Select the developer-specific requirement ??

A. Portability
B. Maintainability
C. Availability
D. Both Portability and Maintainability

 

348- Which of the following is a building block of UML ??

A. Things
B. Relationships
C. Diagrams
D. All of the mentioned

 

349- FAST stands for ??

A. Functional Application Specification Technique
B. Fast Application Specification Technique
C. Facilitated Application Specification Technique
D. None of the mentioned

 

350- Which of the following statement(s) is true about interaction diagrams ??

A. Interaction diagrams are at their best when they deal with one main design flow and not multiple variants that can happen
B. Interaction diagrams are good at designing part or all of one use case’s functionality across multiple objects
C. Interaction diagrams allow the analyst to show iteration and conditional execution for messaging between objects
D. All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

351- How is brainstorming different from JAD ??  Brainstorming sessions ??

A. last for about 2-3 hours
B. last for about 2-3 days
C. cover the technology used for the development
D. all of the mentioned

 

352- At the Conceptual level Class diagrams should include ??

A. operations only
B. attributes only
C. both operations and attributes
D. none of the mentioned

 

353- Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering ??

A. elicitation
B. design
C. analysis
D. documentation

 

354- What is an object ??

A. An object is an instance of a class
B. An object includes encapsulation of data
C. An object is not an instance of a class
D. All of the mentioned

 

355- A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play ??

A. True
B. False

 

356- What is an abstract class ??

A. A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances
B. A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances
C. A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances
D. All of the mentioned

 

357- Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or her version is the right one ??

A. True
B. False

 

358- Select the statement true for activity diagrams ??

A. They can be used to discover parallel activities
B. They are used to depict workflow for a particular business activity
C. Activity diagram does not tell who does what and are difficult to trace back to object models
D. All of the mentioned

 

359- QFD stands for ??

A. quality function design
B. quality function development
C. quality function deployment
D. none of the mentioned

 

360- Which of the following are the valid relationships in Use Case Diagrams ??

A. Generalization
B. Include
C. Extend
D. All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

361- The user system requirements are the parts of which document ??

A. SDD
B. SRS
C. DDD
D. SRD

 

362- UML interfaces are used to ??

A. specify required services for types of objects
B. program in Java, but not in C++ or Smalltalk
C. define executable logic to reuse across classes
D. define an API for all classes

 

363- Which is one of the most important stakeholders from the following ??

A. Entry-level personnel
B. Middle-level stakeholder
C. Managers
D. Users of the software

 

364- What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance ??

A. Regression Testing
B. System Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing

 

365- Choose the incorrect statement in terms of Objects ??

A. Objects are abstractions of real-world
B. Objects can’t manage themselves
C. Objects encapsulate state and representation information
D. All of the mentioned

 

366- Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to produce different output than its original version ??

A. Coverage
B. Minimization
C. Safe
D. Maximization

 

367- Which of the following describes ” Is-a-Relationship ” ??

A. Aggregation
B. Inheritance
C. Dependency
D. All of the mentioned

 

368- Regression testing is a very expensive activity ??

A. True
B. False

 

369- The object that collects data on request rather than autonomously is known as ??

A. Active Object
B. Passive Object
C. Multiple instances
D. None of the mentioned

 

370- Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications ??

A. Efficiency
B. Precision
C. Generality
D. Inclusiveness

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

371- Which of the following is a disadvantage of OOD ??

A. Easier maintenance
B. Objects maybe
understood as stand-alone entities
C. Objects are potentially reusable components
D. None of the mentioned

 

372- Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA ??

A. inter-process inspection
B. maintenance
C. quality planning
D. testing

 

373- How is generalization implemented in Object-Oriented programming languages ??

A. Inheritance
B. Polymorphism
C. Encapsulation
D. Abstract Classes

 

374- The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find what during the process so that they do not become defects after the release of the software ??

A. errors
B. equivalent faults
C. failure cause
D. none of the mentioned

 

375- Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in a class hierarchy to have different methods with the same name ??

A. Aggregation
B. Polymorphism
C. Inheritance
D. All of the mentioned

 

376- According to ISO 9001, the causes of the nonconforming products should be ??

A. deleted
B. eliminated
C. identified
D. eliminated and identified

 

377- Objects are executed ??

A. sequentially
B. in Parallel
C. sequentially & Parallel
D. none of the mentioned

 

378- In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described in what ??

A. Software Product Engineering
B. Software Quality Assurance
C. Software Subcontract Management
D. Software Quality Management

 

379- How many layers are present in the OO design pyramid ??

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. one

 

380-The CMM emphasizes ??

A. continuous process improvement
B. the need to record information
C. the need to accept the quality system
D. none of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

381- Grady Booch, James Rumbaugh, and Ivar Jacobson combined the best features of their individual object-oriented analysis into a new method for object-oriented design known as what ??

A. HTML
B. XML
C. UML
D. SGML

 

382- ISO 9001 is not concerned with what of quality records ??

A. collection
B. maintenance
C. verification
D. dis-positioning

 

383- Which of the following is conceptually similar to objects ??

A. PACKAGE
B. PROC
C. PRIVATE
D. None of the mentioned

 

384- CMM stands for ??

A. Capability Management Module
B. Conservative Maturity Model
C. Capability Maturity Module
D. Capability Maturity Model

 

385- Which of the following early OOD methods incorporates both a “ micro development process” and a “macro development process. ” ??

A. Booch method
B. Rumbaugh method
C. Wirfs-Brock method
D. Coad and Yourdon method


386- Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software ??

A. Project manager
B. Project team
C. SQA group
D. All of the mentioned

 

387- A design description of an object is known as a class ??

A. instance
B. object
C. case
D. both instance and object

 

388- Which of the following is not included in External failure costs ??

A. testing
B. helpline support
C. warranty work
D. complaint resolution

 

389- A design description in OOD includes ??

A. Protocol Description
B. Implementation Description
C. Type Description
D. both Protocol and Implementation Description

 

390- Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured ??

A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

391- Which of the following is not an operation as per OOD algorithms and data structures ??

A. operations that manipulate data in some way
B. operations that perform a computation
C. operations that check for syntax errors
D. operations that monitor an object for the occurrence of a controlling event

 

392- The degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called ??

A. Quality Control
B. Quality of conformance
C. Quality Assurance
D. None of the mentioned

 

393- Which of the following points related to Object-oriented development (OOD) is true ??

A. OOA is concerned with developing an object model of the application domain
B. OOD is concerned with developing an object-oriented system model to implement requirements
C. All of the mentioned
D. None of the mentioned

 

394- Which of the following is not included in failure costs ??

A. rework
B. repair
C. failure mode analysis
D. none of the mentioned

 

395- What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions ??

A. Object
B. Class
C. Super Class
D. Sub Class

 

396- The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model ??

A. True
B. False

 

397- Data Store Symbol in DFD represents what ??

A. Physical file
B. Data Structure
C. Logical file
D. All of the mentioned

 

398- What is not included in prevention costs ??

A. quality planning
B. formal technical reviews
C. test equipment
D. equipment calibration and maintenance

 

399- A directed arc or line in DFD represents what ??

A. Data Store
B. Data Process
C. Data Flow
D. All of the mentioned

 

400- The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can be used for external quality assurance purposes ??

A. True
B. False

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

401- Which of the following is a function of CASE Tool ??

A. Supporting Structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
B. Maintaining the data dictionary
C. Checking whether DFDs are balanced or not
D. All of the mentioned

 

402- CO policy in CMM means ??

A. The leadership practices in Commitment to Perform
B. The organizational structure (groups) practices in Ability to Perform
C. The policy practices in Commitment to Perform
D. The planning practices in Commitment to Perform

 

403- The context diagram is also known as ??

A. Level-0 DFD
B. Level-1 DFD
C. Level-2 DFD
D. All of the mentioned

 

404- Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM ??

A. Design
B. Repeatable
C. Managed
D. Optimizing

 

405- Which of the following is not an activity of Structured Analysis (SA) ??

A. Functional decomposition
B. Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model
C. All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
D. All of the mentioned

 

406- Which of the following requires design control measures, such as holding and recording design reviews and qualification tests ??

A. CMM
B. ISO 9001
C. ISO 9000-3
D. None of the mentioned

 

407- To arrive at a form that is suitable for implementation in some programming language is the purpose of what ??

A. Structured Analysis (SA)
B. Structured Design (SD)
C. Detailed Design (DD)
D. None of the mentioned

 

408- What states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are identified and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics ??

A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 9000-4
C. CMM
D. All of the mentioned

 

409-SA/SD features are obtained from which of the methodologies ??

A. Constantine and Yourdon methodology
B. DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
C. Gane and Sarson methodology
D. All of the mentioned

 

410- Which of the following is not an SQA plan for a project ??

A. evaluations to be performed
B. amount of technical work
C. audits and reviews to be performed
D. documents to be produced by the SQA group

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

411- What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle ??

A. Transform
B. Data Store
C. Function
D. None of the mentioned

 

412- The CMMI assessment is based on an x-point scale. What is the value of x ??

A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

 

413- In DFDs, user interactions with the system are denoted by ??

A. Circle
B. Arrow
C. Rectangle
D. Triangle

 

414- It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model ??

A. True
B. False

 

415- Structured Analysis is based on the principles of ??

A. Top-down decomposition approach
B. Divide and conquer principle
C. Graphical representation of results using DFDs
D. All of the mentioned

 

416- Which of the following is not a part of process change ??

A. Introducing new practices, methods, or processes
B. Introducing new team members to an existing project
C. Introducing or removing deliverable
D. Introducing new roles or responsibilities

 

417- Which of the following is not a use of a CASE tool ??

A. Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
B. Maintains the data dictionary
C. Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not
D. It complies with the available system

 

418- What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan ??

A. Deliverable
B. Activity
C. Condition
D. Process

 

419- Function-oriented design techniques start with functional requirements specified in ??

A. SDD
B. SRS
C. All of the mentioned
D. None of the mentioned

 

420- Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers use to develop and maintain information systems ??

A. True
B. False

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

421- Which of the following is/are true with respect to functions ??

A. A function such as “search-book” is represented using a circle
B. Functions represent some activity
C. Function symbol is known as a process symbol or a bubble in DFD
D. All of the mentioned

 

422- How many stages are there in process improvement ??

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six

 

423- Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design ??

A. It consists of module definitions
B. Modules represent data abstraction
C. Modules support functional abstraction
D. None of the mentioned

 

424- Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process ??

A. Informal
B. Managed
C. Methodical
D. Supported

 

425- Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion ??

A. Logical Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Functional Cohesion
D. Coincidental Cohesion

 

426- What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers ??

A. Role
B. Exception
C. Activity
D. Process

 

427- If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited ??

A. Functional Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Functional Cohesion
D. Sequential Cohesion

 

428- The documentation of a process that records the tasks, the roles, and the entities used are called what ??

A. Process metric
B. Process analysis
C. Process modeling
D. None of the mentioned

 

429- Which of the following is a complementary approach to a function-oriented approach ??

A. Object-oriented analysis
B. Object-oriented design
C. Structured approach
D. Both Object-oriented analysis and design

 

430- “Understandability” answers which of the following description ??

A. The extent to which the process is explicitly defined
B. Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
C. Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software product
D. Process continues in spite of unexpected problems

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

431- In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another ??

A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. External Coupling
D. Content Coupling

 

432- In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified ??

A. Process measurement
B. Process analysis
C. Process change
D. None of the mentioned

 

433- Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion ??

A. Functional Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Functional Cohesion
D. Sequential Cohesion

 

434- Robustness” answers which of the following description ??

A. CASE tools are used to support the process activities
B. Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
C. Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software
D. Process continues in spite of unexpected problems

 

435- Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling ??

A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. External Coupling
D. Content Coupling

 

436- National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program approves accreditation in what ??

A. Environmental standards
B. Computers and electronics
C. Product testing
D. All of the mentioned

 

437- what is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules ??

A. Cohesion
B. Coupling
C. None of the mentioned
D. All of the mentioned


438- CSQA stands for ??

A. Certified Software Quality Analyst
B. Certified Software Quality Approved
C. Certified Software Quality Acclaimed
D. None of the mentioned

 

439- Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of ??

A. Functions
B. Modules
C. Classes
D. Sub procedures

 

440- What are the goals to gain Laboratory Accreditation ??

A. Increase availability of testing services through third-party laboratories
B. Increase availability of testing market to encourage the development of software testing industry
C. Reduce cost by increasing supply of testing services
D. All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

441- Which of the following is the best type of module coupling ??

A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. Data Coupling
D. Content Coupling

 

442- Which of the following companies provide certifications for their own products ??

A. CISCO
B. ORACLE
C. Microsoft
D. All of the mentioned

 

443- Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits software modularity ??

A. Modules are robust
B. Module can use other modules
C. Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
D. Modules are mostly dependent

 

444- CSTE stands for ??

A. Certified Software Technology
B. Certified Software Tester
C. Certified Software Trainee
D. None of the mentioned

 

445- The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is ??

A. Efficiency
B. Accuracy
C. Quality
D. Complexity

 

446- How many levels, does the DO-178B certification targeted by RTCADO-178B have??

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five

 

447- Debugging is what ??

A. creating program code
B. finding and correcting errors in the program code
C. identifying the task to be computerized
D. creating the algorithm

 

448- Which of the following manuals is not user documentation ??

A. Beginner’s Guide
B. Installation guide
C. Reference Guide
D. SRS

 

449- What is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that task ??

A. Project design
B. Installation
C. Systems analysis
D. Programming

 

450- The process of transforming a model into source code is known as what ??

A. Forward engineering
B. Reverse engineering
C. Re-engineering
D. Reconstructing

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

451- Which tool is used for structured designing ??

A. Program flowchart
B. Structure chart
C. Data-flow diagram
D. Module

 

452- Which of the following is a field related to certification ??

A. Person
B. Process
C. Product
D. All of the mentioned

 

453- The actual programming of software code is done during which step in the SDLC ??

A. Maintenance and Evaluation
B. Design
C. Analysis
D. Development and Documentation

 

454- Which standard is followed in the aviation industry ??

A. CTRADO-172B
B. RTCADO-178B
C. RTRADO-178B
D. CTCADO-178B

 

455- A step-by-step instruction used to solve a problem is known as what ??

A. Sequential structure
B. A-List
C. A plan
D. An Algorithm

 

456- Third-Party Certification for software standards is based on what ??

A. Ul 1998, Second Edition
B. UT 1998, Second Edition
C. Ul 1992, Second Edition
D. Ul 1996, Second Edition

 

457- Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ??

A. Analysis
B. Design
C. Problem/Opportunity Identification
D. Development and Documentation

 

458- Which of the following is a software process certification ??

A. JAVA Certified
B. IBM Certified
C. ISO-9000
D. Microsoft Certified

 

459- Who designs and implements database structures ??

A. Programmers
B. Project managers
C. Technical writers
D. Database administrators

 

460- How many stages are there in the Iterative-enhancement model used during software maintenance ??

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

461- In the Analysis phase, the development of what occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project ??

A. documentation
B. flowchart
C. program specification
D. design

 

462- Which of the following manuals is user documentation ??

A. SRS -Software Requirement Specification
B. SDD -Software Design Document
C. System Overview
D. None of the mentioned

 

463- In the Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ??

A. Architecture
B. Data
C. Interface
D. All of the mentioned

 

464- Does static Analysis involve executing a program ??

A. True
B. False

 

465-What are legacy systems ??

A. new systems
B. old systems
C. under-developed systems
D. none of the mentioned

 

466- Which of the following is a technique covered in Static Analysis ??

A. Formal verification
B. Model checking
C. Automated program analysis
D. All of the mentioned

 

467- Which one of the following is not a maintenance model ??

A. Waterfall model
B. Reuse-oriented model
C. Iterative enhancement model
D. Quick fix model

 

468- Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Model Checking ??

A. Model checking is particularly valuable for verifying concurrent systems
B. Model checking is computationally very inexpensive
C. The model checker explores all possible paths through the model
D. All of the mentioned

 

469- Choose the suitable options with respect to regression testing ??

A. It helps in the development of software
B. It helps in the maintenance of software
C. It helps in the development & maintenance of software
D. none of the mentioned

 

470- The records of each patient that is receiving or has received treatment resemble which security concept ??

A. Asset
B. Threat
C. Vulnerability
D. Control

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

471- What is a software patch ??

A. Required or Critical Fix
B. Emergency Fix
C. Daily or routine Fix
D. None of the mentioned

 

472- Select the disadvantage of using Formal methods ??

A. Concurrent systems can be analyzed to discover race conditions that might lead to deadlock
B. Producing a mathematical specification requires a detailed analysis of the requirements
C. They require the use of specialized notations that cannot be understood by domain experts
D. All of the mentioned

 

473- What does ACT stand for in In Boehm model for software maintenance ??

A. Actual change track
B. Annual change track
C. Annual change traffic
D. Actual change traffic

 

474- Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: ”Variables declared but never used ” ??

A. Control Faults
B. Data Faults
C. Input/Output Faults
D. Interface faults

 

475- The process of generating analysis and design documents is known as ??

A. Software engineering
B. Software re-engineering
C. Reverse engineering
D. Re-engineering

 

476- Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: ” Non-usage of the results of functions ” ??

A. Storage management faults
B. Data Faults
C. Input/Output Faults
D. Interface faults

 

477- What measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle realistic applications ??

A. Efficiency
B. Precision
C. Generality
D. Inclusiveness

 

478- Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest-all” technique. How many selective retest techniques are there ??

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five

 

479- Which level of Static Analysis allows specific rules that apply to a program to be checked ??

A. Characteristic error checking
B. User-defined error checking
C. Assertion checking
D. All of the mentioned

 

480- The modification of the software to match changes in the ever-changing environment falls under which category of software maintenance ??

A. Corrective
B. Adaptive
C. Perfective
D. Preventive

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

481- Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: “ Unreachable code ” ??

A. Control Faults
B. Data Faults
C. Input/Output Faults
D. Interface faults

 

482- Software Maintenance includes ??

A. Error corrections
B. Enhancements of capabilities
C. Deletion of obsolete capabilities
D. All of the mentioned

 

483- Static analysis is now routinely used in the development of many safety and security-critical systems ??

A. True
B. False

 

484- What are the two ways to view the human error of a sociotechnical system ??

A. hardware and software approach
B. management and users approach
C. person and systems approach
D. all of the mentioned

 

485- Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: ” Pointer Arithmetic ” ??

A. Storage management faults
B. Data Faults
C. Input/Output Faults
D. Interface faults

 

486- How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model ??

A. six
B. seven
C. eight
D. nine

 

487- An impersonation of an authorized user is an example of a security threat ??

A. True
B. False

 

488- Maintenance is classified into how many categories ??

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five

 

489- Circumstances that have the potential to cause loss or harm are known as ??

A. Attack
B. Threat
C. Vulnerability
D. Control

 

490- Human and organizational factors such as organizational structure and politics have a significant effect on the operation of sociotechnical systems ??

A. True
B. False

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

491- A system resource that has a value and has to be protected is known as ??

A. Asset
B. Control
C. Vulnerability
D. None of the mentioned

 

492- Sociotechnical systems are deterministic ??

A. True
B. False

 

493- What is a Life cycle risk assessment ??

A. Risk assessment before the system has been deployed
B. Risk assessment while the system is being developed
C. All of the mentioned
D. None of the mentioned

 

494- In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider reliability from perspectives namely ??

A. only software reliability
B. only hardware reliability
C. hardware and software reliability
D. hardware, software, and operator reliability

 

495- Security engineering is only concerned with the maintenance of systems such that they can resist malicious attacks ??

A. True
B. False

 

496- Which property of a sociotechnical system varies depending on how the component assemblies are arranged and connected ??

A. security
B. usability
C. volume
D. reliability

 

497- Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful are analogous to what in dependability engineering ??

A. Fault avoidance
B. Fault tolerance
C. Fault detection
D. Fault Recovery

 

498- How many overlapping stages in the lifetime of large and complex sociotechnical systems are ??

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five

 

499- What are security controls ??

A. Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful
B. Controls that are intended to detect and repel attacks
C. Controls that are intended to support recovery from problems
D. All of the mentioned

 

500- Which property of a sociotechnical system depends on the technical system components, its operators, and its operating environment ??

A. security
B. usability
C. volume
D. reliability

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

501- Which of the following is a layer of protection for Security ??

A. Platform-level protection
B. Application-level protection
C. Record-level protection
D. All of the mentioned

 

502- Consider an example of a system that has a police command and control system that may include a geographical information system to provide details of the location of incidents. What kind of system the example represents ??

A. Complex System
B. Technical computer-based system
C. Sociotechnical System
D. Both Complex and Sociotechnical System

 

503- Which of the following is a bad practice of Dependable programming ??

A. Limit the visibility of information in a program
B. Check array bounds
C. Check all inputs for validity
D. None of the mentioned

 

504- The cost of re-engineering is often significantly less than the costs of developing new software ??

A. True
B. False

 

505- Which of the following is not a Protection system ??

A. System to stop a train if it passes a red light
B. System to indicate not returning of the library book
C. System to shut down a reactor if temperature/pressure is too high
D. None of the mentioned

 

506- The Incremental Model is a combination of elements of what ??

A. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
B. Linear Model & RAD Model
C. Linear Model & Prototyping Model
D. Waterfall Model & RAD Model

 

507- Exception handling is a mechanism to provide some fault avoidance ??

A. True
B. False

 

508- Reverse engineering is the last activity in a re-engineering project ??

A. True
B. False

 

509- What is a Range check ??

A. Check that the input does not exceed some maximum size e.g. 40 characters for a name
B. Check that the input falls within a known range
C. Use information about the input to check if it is reasonable rather than an extreme value
D. None of the mentioned

 

510- Processes for evolving a software product depend on what ??

A. Type of software to be maintained
B. Development processes used
C. Skills and experience of the people involved
D. All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

511- The use of a well-defined, repeatable process is essential if faults in a system are to be minimized ??

A. True
B. False

 

512- Model preferred to create client/server applications is ??

A. WINWIN Spiral Model
B. Spiral Model
C. Concurrent Model
D. Incremental Model

 

513- What is the term for a system that is designed such that the faults in the delivered software do not result in system failure ??

A. Fault Avoidance
B. Fault detection
C. Fault tolerance
D. None of the mentioned

 

514- The spiral model was developed by ??

A. Victor Basili
B. Berry Boehm
C. Bev Littlewood
D. Roger Pressman

 

515- What is the term for development process organized such that faults in the system are detected and repaired before delivery to the customer ??

A. Fault Avoidance
B. Fault detection
C. Fault tolerance
D. None of the mentioned

 

516- Which technique is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy systems ??

A. Forward engineering
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Reengineering
D. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering

 

517- Which of the following is a Strategy to achieve Software diversity ??

A. Different programming languages
B. Different design methods and tools
C. Explicit specification of different algorithms
D. All of the mentioned

 

518- A sociotechnical system is a system that includes what ??

A. people
B. software
C. hardware
D. all of the mentioned

 

519- Which process characteristic with respect to Dependability Engineering is mentioned by the statement: “ The process should be understandable by people apart from process participants ” ??

A. Diverse
B. Documentable
C. Auditable
D. None of the mentioned

 

520- The two dimensions of the spiral model are ??

A. diagonal, angular
B. radial, perpendicular
C. radial, angular
D. diagonal, perpendicular

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

521- Which of the following examples does not involve dependability engineering ??

A. Medical Systems
B. Power Systems
C. Library Management
D. Telecommunications

 

522- Identify the correct statement with respect to Evolutionary development ??

A. Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and throw-away prototyping
B. Very large projects are usually done using evolutionary development based approach
C. It facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of documentation it generates
D. Sometimes the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a re-implementation of the software system using a more structured approach

 

523- Consider a case where the failure of the system causes damage to the system itself or its data. What type of failure is being described here ??

A. Loss of service
B. Incorrect service delivery
C. System/data corruption
D. None of the mentioned

 

524- Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities of ??

A. Forward engineering
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Reengineering
D. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering

 

525- At which stage of risk analysis specification, the additional security requirements take account of the technologies used in building the system and system design and implementation decisions ??

A. Preliminary risk analysis
B. Life-cycle risk analysis
C. Operational risk analysis
D. All of the mentioned

 

526- Software evolution does not comprise??

A. Development activities
B. Negotiating with client
C. Maintenance activities
D. Re-engineering activities

 

527- Which reliability metric sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be observed relative to a certain time period ??

A. POFOD
B. ROCOF
C. AVAIL
D. None of the mentioned

 

528- To specify security requirements, one should identify the risks that are to be dealt with

A. True
B. False

 

529- Cost and schedule are a part of ??

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

 

530- Which reliability requirements are concerned with maintaining copies of the system ??

A. Checking requirements
B. Recovery requirements
C. Redundancy requirements
D. Ambiguous requirements

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

531- The number of errors found per person-hours expended is an example of a ??

A. measurement
B. measure
C. metric
D. all of the mentioned

 

532- Which of the following is not a functional reliability requirement for a system ??

A. Checking requirements
B. Recovery requirements
C. Redundancy requirements
D. Ambiguous requirements

 

533- Usability in the metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software ??

A. stated needs
B. is easy to use
C. makes optimal use of system resources
D. none of the mentioned

 

534- Size and Complexity are a part of ??

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

 

535- POFOD stands for ??

A. Possibility of failure of data
B. Probability of failure of data
C. Possibility of failure on demand
D. Probability of failure on demand

 

536- Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality Factors ??

A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Usability
D. Integrity

 

537- How many stages are there in Risk-driven requirements specification ??

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six

 

538- Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics ??

A. Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)
B. Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
C. Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)]
D. Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)]

 

539- Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics ??

A. Complexity Metrics
B. Cohesion Metrics
C. Morphology Metrics
D. Coupling Metrics

 

540- An event that occurs at some point in time when the system does not deliver a service as expected by its users is called ??

A. Human error or mistake
B. System fault
C. System error
D. System failure

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

541- MTTC falls under the category of ??

A. correctness
B. integrity
C. maintainability
D. all of the mentioned

 

542- Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of what ??

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

 

543- Consider a case where the system is unavailable and cannot deliver its services to users. What type of failure is being described here ??

A. Loss of service
B. Incorrect service delivery
C. System/data corruption
D. None of the mentioned

 

544- The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio ??

A. maximum number of nodes at any level
B. longest path from the root to a leaf
C. number of modules
D. lines of control

 

545- A password checking system that disallows user passwords that are proper names or words that are normally included in a dictionary is an example of what with respect to security systems ??

A. risk
B. control
C. attack
D. asset

 

546- The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as ??

A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D. Functionality

 

547- An assessment of the worst possible damage that could result from a particular hazard is known as ??

A. Risk
B. Hazard probability
C. Hazard severity
D. Mishap

 

548- SMI stands for ??

A. Software Mature Indicator
B. Software Maturity Index
C. Software Mature Index
D. Software Maturity Indicator

 

549- An erroneous system state that can lead to system behavior that is unexpected by system users is known as ??

A. Human error or mistake
B. System fault
C. System error
D. System failure

 

550- Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by ??

A. Booch
B. Boehm
C. Albrecht
D. Jacobson

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

The safety of a system is a system attribute that reflects the system’s ability to operate, normally or abnormally, without injury to people or damage to the environment ??

A. True
B. False

 

Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ??

A. Number of Static Content Objects
B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C. Number of Inherited Objects
D. Word Count

 

Which of the following is not a metric for the design model ??

A. Interface design metrics
B. Component-level metrics
C. Architectural metrics
D. Complexity metrics

 

Function Point Computation is given by the formula ??

A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]
C. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
D. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

 

A chemical plant system may detect excessive pressure and open a relief valve to reduce these pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of dependability and security issue the example state??

A. Hazard avoidance
B. Damage limitation
C. Hazard detection
D. Hazard detection and removal

 

How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation ??

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six

 

An aircraft engine normally includes automatic fire extinguishers. What kind of dependability and security issue the example state ??

A. Hazard avoidance
B. Damage limitation
C. Hazard detection
D. Hazard detection and removal

 

Architectural Design Metrics are what in nature ??

A. Black Box
B. White Box
C. Gray Box
D. Green Box

 

Structural complexity of module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolize here ??

A. “fan check-out” of module i
B. “fan check-in” of module i
C. “fan in” of module i
D. “fan-out” of module i

 

A characteristic of a software system that can lead to a system error is known as ??

A. Human error or mistake
B. System fault
C. System error
D. System failure

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules what ??

A. in the current release
B. in the current release that has been changed
C. from the preceding release that was deleted in the current release
D. none of the mentioned

 

Which of the following terms is a measure of the probability that the system will cause an accident ??

A. Risk
B. Hazard probability
C. Accident
D. Damage

 

Which level of CMM is for process management ??

A. Initial
B. Repeatable
C. Defined
D. Optimizing

 

Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of ??

A. Analysis Model
B. Testing
C. Design Model
D. Source Code

 

Software reliability is defined with respect to ??

A. time
B. bugs
C. failures
D. quality

 

Which of the following is not a classification of the web engineering metric, Web Page Similarity ??

A. Content-based
B. Link-based
C. Usage-based
D. Traffic based

 

Failure In Time (FIT) is another way of reporting ??

A. MTTR
B. MTTF
C. MTSF
D. MTBF

 

How is the complexity of a web page related to link count ??

A. Directly
B. Indirectly
C. No relation
D. All of the mentioned

 

In ISO 9126, time behavior and resource utilization are a part of ??

A. maintainability
B. portability
C. efficiency
D. usability

 

Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ??

A. Word Token
B. Word Count
C. Word Size
D. Word Length

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

MTTF stands for ??

A. Minimum time to failure
B. Mean time to failure
C. Maximum time to failure
D. None of the mentioned

 

Link-based measures rely on which structure of a web graph to obtain related pages ??

A. Embedded
B. Hyperlink
C. Dynamic
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is not a Probabilistic Model ??

A. Error seeding
B. NHPP
C. Input domain
D. Halstead’s software metric

 

Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between two or more web pages ??

A. Number of Static Content Objects
B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C. Web Page Similarity
D. Number of Internal Page Links

 

IMC Networks is a leading _____ certified manufacturer of optical networking and LAN/WAN connectivity solutions for enterprise, telecommunications, and service provider applications ??

A. Telco Systems
B. D-Link
C. Arista Networks
D. ISO 9001

 

Usability can be measured in terms of ??

A. Intellectual skill to learn the system
B. Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
C. Net increase in productivity
D. All of the mentioned

 

How many levels are present in CMM ??

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six

 

Which of the following is not a direct measure of the SE process ??

A. Efficiency
B. Cost
C. Effort Applied
D. All of the mentioned

 

Exception handling is a type of ??

A. forward error recovery mechanism
B. backward error recovery mechanism
C. All of the mentioned
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance ??

A. Market
B. Product
C. Technology
D. People

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Which one is not a software quality model ??

A. ISO 9000
B. McCall model
C. Boehm model
D. ISO 9126

 

Which of the following is an indirect measure of product ??

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the Mentioned

 

Non-occurrence of improper alteration of information is known as ??

A. Available Dependability
B. Confidential Dependability
C. Maintainable Dependability
D. Integral Dependability

 

A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as ??

A. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
B. Function points analysis
C. Control Chart
D. All of the mentioned

 

Do all fault-tolerant techniques rely on ??

A. Integrity
B. Dependability
C. Redundancy
D. None of the mentioned

 

In size-oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on what ??

A. number of Functions
B. number of user inputs
C. number of lines of code
D. amount of memory usage

 

Suitability, Accuracy, Interoperability, and security are what type of quality attribute of ISO 9126 ??

A. Reliability
B. Efficiency
C. Functionality
D. Usability

 

Which of the following Error Detection checks is not a part of Application detection ??

A. Hardware checks
B. Timing checks
C. Reversal checks
D. Coding checks

 

Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on ??

A. E – errors found before software delivery
B. D – defects found after delivery to the user
C. Both E and D
D. Varies with project

 

Which of the following approaches are used to achieve reliable systems ??

A. Fault prevention
B. Fault removal
C. Fault tolerance
D. All of the mentioned

 

 

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

NHPP stands for ??

A. Non-Homogeneous Poisson Product
B. Non-Heterogeneous Poisson Product
C. Non-Heterogeneous Poisson Process
D. Non-Homogeneous Poisson Process

 

The intent of project metrics is ??

A. minimization of the development schedule
B. for strategic purposes
C. assessing project quality on an ongoing basis
D. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on an ongoing basis

 

In N-version programming which is the independent generation of N, the value of N is ??

A. greater than 1
B. less than 1
C. greater than 2
D. less than 2

 

Which of the following is the task of project indicators ??

A. help in the assessment of the status of the ongoing project
B. track potential risk
C. help in the assessment of the status of ongoing project & track potential risk
D. none of the mentioned

 

What type of fault remains in the system for some period and then disappears ??

A. Permanent
B. Transient
C. Intermittent
D. All of the mentioned

 

It is imperative for a communicating process to reach consistent recovery points to avoid which effect, with backward error recovery mechanism ??

A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Domino
D. Whirlpool

 

Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA ??

A. Number of user Input
B. Number of user Inquiries
C. Number of external Interfaces
D. Number of errors

 

A system maintaining its integrity while accepting a temporary halt in its operation is said to be in a state of ??

A. Full Fault Tolerance
B. Graceful Degradation
C. Fail Soft
D. Fail-Safe

 

Which of the following term describes testing ??

A. Finding broken code
B. Evaluating deliverable to find errors
C. A stage of all projects
D. None of the mentioned

What is MTTF ??

A. Maximum time to failure
B. Mean time to failure
C. Minimum time to failure
D. None of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time ??

A. Version Control
B. Access control
C. CM Process
D. Version Control and Access control

How many product quality factors are proposed in the McCall quality model ??

A. 2
B. 3
C. 11
D. 8

Which of the following is not a change management process ??

A. Log the changes
B. Estimate impact on effort and schedule
C. Review impact with stakeholders
D. None of the mentioned

Which of the following is not a phase of the “bathtub curve” of hardware reliability ??

A. Useful Life
B. Burn-in
C. Wear-out
D. Time

How are baselines verified ??

A. By reviews
B. By inspections
C. By testing of code
D. All of the mentioned

How is software reliability defined ??

A. time
B. efficiency
C. quality
D. speed

Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes ??

A. A compliant product
B. Good quality output
C. Delivery within budget and schedule
D. All of the mentioned

Time Behavior and Resource Behavior fall under which quality attribute of ISO 9126 ??

A. Reliability
B. Efficiency
C. Functionality
D. Usability

Which of the following is an example of Configuration Items ??

A. SCM procedures
B. Source code
C. Software design descriptions
D. All of the mentioned

The CMM model is a technique to ??

A. automatically maintain the software reliability
B. improve the software process
C. test the software
D. all of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

CCB stands for ??

A. Change Control Board
B. Change Control Baseline
C. Cumulative Changes in Baseline
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which one of the following is not a software quality model ??

A. ISO 9000
B. McCall model
C. Boehm model
D. ISO 9126

 

Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs ??

A. Prevention
B. Internal Failure
C. External Failure
D. Appraisal

 

How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other ??

A. direct relation
B. inverse relation
C. no relation
D. none of the mentioned

 

Quality Management in software engineering is also known as ??

A. SQA
B. SQM
C. SQI
D. SQA and SQM

 

What information is required to process a change to a baseline ??

A. Reasons for making the changes
B. A description of the proposed changes
C. List of other items affected by the changes
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model ??

A. WINWIN Spiral Model
B. Incremental Model
C. Concurrent Development Model
D. All of the mentioned

 

According to Pareto’s principle, x% of defects can be traced to y% of all causes. What are the values of x and y ??

A. 60, 40
B. 70, 30
C. 80, 20
D. No such principle exists

 

Choose the correct option given below ??

A. Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
B. RAD Model Model facilitates reusability of components
C. Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
D. None

 

What is Six Sigma ??

A. It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
B. The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
C. It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
D. A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for a quality walkthrough or inspection

 

Software Engineering MCQs

Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system release once every month ??

A. True
B. False

 

Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma ??

A. Define
B. Control
C. Measure
D. Analyse

 

Tests are automated in Extreme Programming ??

A. True
B. False

 

What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment ??

A. Prevention
B. Internal Failure
C. External Failure
D. Appraisal

 

Developers work individually on a release and they compare their results with other developers before forwarding that release to customers ??

A. True
B. False

 

Non-conformance to software requirements is known as ??

A. Software availability
B. Software reliability
C. Software failure
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which one of the following is not an agile method ??

A. XP
B. 4GT
C. AUP
D. All of the mentioned

 

The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as ??

A. Quality of design
B. Quality of conformance
C. Quality of testing
D. None of the mentioned

 

How many phases are there in Scrum ??

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases

 

According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing come under which management responsibility ??

A. Process control
B. Document control
C. Control of nonconforming products
D. Servicing

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ??

A. analysis, design, coding
B. requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
C. speculation, collaboration, learning
D. all of the mentioned

 

When code is made available to others, it goes in a/an ??

A. hard drive
B. access-controlled library
C. servers
D. access control

 

User requirements are expressed as what in Extreme Programming ??

A. implementation tasks
B. functionalities
C. scenarios
D. none of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is not the main phase in Configuration Management (CM) Process ??

A. CM Planning
B. Executing the CM process
C. CM audits
D. None of the mentioned

 

Programmers prefer programming to test and sometimes they take shortcuts when writing tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions that may occur ??

A. True
B. False

 

SCM stands for ??

A. Software Control Management
B. Software Configuration Management
C. Software Concept Management
D. None of the mentioned

 

In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality before that functionality itself is implemented ??

A. True
B. False

 

What is validating the completeness of a product ??

A. Identification
B. Software
C. Auditing and Reviewing
D. Status Accounting

 

Is a customer involved in test development and validation in XP ??

A. Yes
B. No
C. It may vary from Customer to Customer
D. None of the mentioned

 

What is a collection of software elements treated as a unit for the purposes of SCM ??

A. Software Configuration Item
B. Baseline
C. Configuration
D. Configuration Control Board

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ??

A. analysis, design, coding, testing
B. planning, analysis, design, coding
C. planning, design, coding, testing
D. planning, analysis, coding, testing

 

What is one or more software configuration items that have been formally reviewed and agreed upon and serve as a basis for further development ??

A. Configuration
B. Baseline
C. Software
D. All of the mentioned

 

The purpose of the process is to deliver software ??

A. in time
B. with acceptable quality
C. that is cost-efficient
D. both in time & with acceptable quality

 

What is a group with the responsibility for reviewing and approving changes to baselines ??

A. Software Configuration Item
B. Baseline
C. Configuration
D. Configuration Control Board

 

What are two kinds of software products ??

A. CAD, CAM
B. Firmware, Embedded
C. Generic, Customized
D. None of the mentioned

 

What is a specific instance of a baseline or configuration item ??

A. Software
B. Configuration
C. Version
D. Status Accounting

 

Which one of the following is not a software process quality ??

A. Productivity
B. Portability
C. Timeliness
D. Visibility

 

Which of the following is not a part of Software Configuration Management Basics ??

A. Identification
B. Version
C. Auditing and Reviewing
D. Status Accounting

 

Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product ??

A. keypad control of a security system
B. pattern recognition game playing
C. digital function of dashboard display in a car
D. none of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is a software process ??

A. Analysis and design
B. Configuration and management
C. Business modeling
D. All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases, regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the _____ phase which focuses on what, the _____ phase which focuses on how and the _____ phase which focuses on change ??

i. support

ii. development

iii. definition

A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 2, 1
D. 3, 1, 2

 

Which of the following is not included in Issues Meetings ??

A. Issues gathered the day before
B. Regular schedule of meeting
C. Discussion with business
D. Attendance

 

Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process framework activities and helps the team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk ??

A. Reusability management
B. Risk management
C. Measurement
D. User Reviews

 

Which of the following is not a conflict in the software development team ??

A. Simultaneous updates
B. Shared and common code
C. Versions
D. Graphics issues

 

The purpose of the process is to deliver software ??

A. in time
B. with acceptable quality
C. that is cost-efficient
D. both in time & with acceptable quality

 

Which of the following is not a typical environment in communication facilitation ??

A. Multiple teams
B. Multiple user groups
C. Multiple fests
D. Multiple locations

 

Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report ??

A. Communication
B. Planning
C. Modeling & Construction
D. Deployment

 

Why is software difficult to build ??

A. Controlled changes
B. Lack of reusability
C. Lack of monitoring
D. All of the mentioned

 

Four types of change are encountered during the support phase. Which one of the following is not one that falls into such category ??

A. Translation
B. Correction
C. Adaptation
D. Prevention

 

Debugging Program is a program that runs concurrently with the program under test & provides commands to ??

A. examine memory & registers
B. stop execution at a particular point
C. search for references for particular variables, constant, and registers
D. all of the mentioned

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process ??

A. Uses incremental product delivery strategy
B. Only essential work products are produced
C. Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
D. All of the mentioned

 

Beta Testing is done by ??

A. Developers
B. Testers
C. Users
D. All of the mentioned

 

How is plan-driven development different from agile development ??

A. Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process
B. Specification, design, implementation, and testing are interleaved
C. Iteration occurs within activities
D. All of the mentioned

 

Execution Verifier is a dynamic tool that is also known as ??

A. Test File Generator
B. Coverage Analyzer
C. Output Comparator
D. Test Harness System

 

Agile Software Development is based on ??

A. Incremental Development
B. Iterative Development
C. Linear Development
D. Both Incremental and Iterative Development

 

Which testing tool is responsible for documenting programs ??

A. Test/File Generator
B. Test Harness System
C. Test Archiving Systems
D. Coverage Analyzer

 

Which of the following model has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a software life cycle model ??

A. Spiral Model
B. Waterfall Model
C. Rad Model
D. 4GT Model

 

Software Testing with real data in a real environment is known as ??

A. alpha testing
B. beta testing
C. regression testing
D. none of the mentioned

 

Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development ??

A. Individuals and interactions
B. Working software
C. Customer collaboration
D. All of the mentioned

 

Many applications using static analysis find 0.1-0.2% NCSS. NCSS stands for ??

A. Non-Code Source Statement
B. Non Comment Source Sentence
C. Non-Comment Source Statement
D. All of the mentioned

Software Engineering MCQs

 

What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model for producing small-scale products, applications, or programs ??

A. Improved productivity of software engineers
B. Reduction in software development time
C. 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators offer a credible solution to many software problems
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which of the following testing tools examine the program systematically & automatically ??

A. Code Inspector
B. Static Analyzer
C. Standard Enforcer
D. Coverage Analyzer

 

Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL ?? One originating ??

A. on Lisp machine
B. on report generators
C. from database query languages
D. from GUI creators

 

Which testing tool does a simple job of enforcing standards in a uniform way of many programs ??

A. Static Analyzer
B. Code Inspector
C. Standard Enforcer
D. Both Code Inspector & Standard Enforcer

 

If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for ??

A. WINWIN Spiral Model
B. Spiral Model
C. Concurrent Model
D. Incremental Model

 

Standard Enforcer is a ??

A. Static Testing Tool
B. Dynamic Testing
C. Static & Dynamic Testing
D. None of the mentioned

 

Identify the disadvantage of the Spiral Model ??

A. Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
B. High amount of risk analysis
C. Strong approval and documentation control
D. Additional Functionality can be added at a later date

The test should be conducted for every possible ??

A. data
B. case
C. variable
D. all of the mentioned

The spiral model has two dimensions namely ??

A. diagonal, angular
B. radial, perpendicular
C. radial, angular
D. diagonal, perpendicular

 

Which is a black-box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing ??

A. Acceptance testing
B. Regression testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Quality assurance

Software Engineering MCQs

 

The Incremental Model is a result of the combination of elements of which two models ??

A. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
B. Linear Model & RAD Model
C. Linear Model & Prototyping Model
D. Waterfall Model & RAD Model

Effective testing will reduce which cost ??

A. maintenance
B. design
C. coding
D. documentation

RUP stands for _____ created by a division of ??

A. Rational Unified Program, IBM
B. Rational Unified Process, Infosys
C. Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
D. Rational Unified Process, IBM

 

Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method ??

A. Yellow box
B. White box
C. Gray box
D. Black box

 

Which two models don’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle ??

A. Waterfall & RAD
B. Prototyping & Spiral
C. Prototyping & RAD
D. Waterfall & Spiral

 

Which of the following is the way of ensuring that the tests are actually testing code ??

A. Control structure testing
B. Complex path testing
C. Code coverage
D. Quality assurance of software

 

Which of the following 4GLs invented at IBM and subsequently adopted by ANSI and ISO as the standard language for managing structured data ??

A. SQL
B. PROLOG
C. C
D. JAVA

 

Which of the following is a common pointer problem ??

A. Data sharing errors
B. Accessing data elements of the wrong type
C. Attempting to use memory areas after freeing them
D. All of the mentioned

 

Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT ??

i. Design strategy

ii. Transformation into product

iii. Implementation

iv. Requirement gathering 

A. 1, 4, 3, 2
B. 4, 3, 1, 2
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 1, 3, 4, 2

 

Which of the following is not a part of the bug report ??

A. Test case
B. Output
C. Software Version
D. LOC

Software Engineering MCQs

 

The 4GT Model is a package of ??

A. CASE Tools
B. Software tools
C. Software Programs
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is not a part of Execution Flow during debugging ??

A. Step Over
B. Step Into
C. Step Up
D. Step Out

 

4GL is an example of which processing ??

A. White Box
B. Black Box
C. Functional
D. Both Black Box & Functional

 

Software mistakes during coding are known as ??

A. errors
B. failures
C. bugs
D. defects

 

Identify a fourth-generation language(4GL) from the given below ??

A. FORTRAN
B. COBOL
C. Unix shell
D. C++

 

Name an evaluation technique to assess the quality of test cases ??

A. Mutation analysis
B. Validation
C. Verification
D. Performance analysis

 

If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select ??

A. Waterfall
B. Spiral
C. RAD
D. Incremental

What is the testing process’s first goal ??

A. Bug prevention
B. Testing
C. Execution
D. Analyses

A company is developing an advanced version of their current software available in the market, what model approach would they prefer ??

A. RAD
B. Iterative Enhancement
C. Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement
D. Spiral

 

What categorizes class operations based on the generic function that each performs ??

A. Category-based partitioning
B. Attribute-based partitioning
C. State-based partitioning
D. None of the mentioned

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if the user’s participation is not involved ??

A. Waterfall & Spiral
B. RAD & Spiral
C. RAD & Waterfall
D. RAD & Prototyping

In which of the following testing strategies, the smallest testable unit is the encapsulated class or object ??

A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. System testing
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects ??

A. Spiral
B. Waterfall
C. RAD
D. Iterative Enhancement Model

 

What refers to the externally observable structure of an OO program ??

A. Deep structure
B. Surface structure
C. Core structure
D. All of the mentioned

 

Selection of a model is based on ??

A. Requirements
B. Development team & Users
C. Project type and associated risk
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is a part of testing OO code ??

A. Validation tests
B. Integration tests
C. Class tests
D. System tests

 

The longer a fault exists in the software ??

A. the more tedious its removal becomes
B. the more costly it is to detect and correct
C. the less likely it is to be properly corrected
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which testing integrates the set of classes required to respond to one input or event for the system ??

A. cluster testing
B. thread-based testing
C. use-based testing
D. none of the mentioned

 

Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software engineering ??

A. Software Verification
B. Software Validation
C. Software design and implementation
D. Software evolution

 

Which methods can be used to drive validations tests ??

A. Yellow-box testing
B. Black-box testing
C. White-box testing
D. All of the mentioned

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system ??

A. Transition
B. Elaboration
C. Construction
D. Inception

 

The object of what within an OO system is to design tests that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs ??

A. Fault-based testing
B. Integration testing
C. Use-based testing
D. Scenario-based testing

 

The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice. What does static perspective do ??

A. It shows the process activities that are enacted
B. It suggests good practices to be used during the process
C. It shows the phases of the model over time
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is black-box oriented and can be accomplished by applying the same black-box methods discussed for conventional software ??

A. Conventional testing
B. OO system validation testing
C. Test case design
D. Both Conventional testing and OO system validation testing

 

Choose an internal software quality from the given below ??

A. scalability
B. usability
C. reusability
D. reliability

 

Which of the following testing types is not a part of system testing ??

A. Recovery testing
B. Stress testing
C. System testing
D. Random testing

 

How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model ??

A. Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
B. Changing requirements can be accommodated in the Incremental Model
C. Users can see the system early in the Incremental Model
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is one of the steps in the integration testing of OO software ??

A. cluster testing
B. thread-based testing
C. use-based testing
D. none of the mentioned

 

How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model ??

A. It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project-related information
B. It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral
C. It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks
D. It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support

 

The construction of object-oriented software begins with the creation of ??

A. design model
B. analysis model
C. code levels
D. both design and analysis model

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

What is the major advantage of using the Incremental Model ??

A. Customer can respond to each increment
B. Easier to test and debug
C. It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
D. Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early

 

Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped” software products are being developed ??

A. Regression Testing
B. Integration testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Validation testing

 

The spiral model was originally proposed by ??

A. IBM
B. Barry Boehm
C. Pressman
D. Royce

 

Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data ??

A. True
B. False

 

Which of the following issues must be addressed if a successful software testing strategy is to be implemented ??

A. Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter prior to testing
B. Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid cycle testing.”
C. State testing objectives explicitly
D. All of the mentioned

 

Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a working/executable code ??

A. True
B. False

 

What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step ??

A. Integration testing
B. Unit testing
C. Completion of Testing
D. Regression Testing

 

A data object can encapsulate processes and operations as well ??

A. True
B. False

 

Test cases should uncover errors like ??

A. Nonexistent loop termination
B. Comparison of different data types
C. Incorrect logical operators or precedence
D. All of the mentioned

 

What classes are used to create the interface that the user sees and interacts with as the software is used ??

A. Controller
B. Entity
C. Boundary
D. Business

 

Software Engineering MCQs

ITG stands for ??

A. instantaneous test group
B. integration testing group
C. individual testing group
D. independent test group

 

One creates Behavioral models of a system when you are discussing and designing the system architecture ??

A. True
B. False

 

Which of the following errors should not be tested when error handling is evaluated ??

A. Error description is unintelligible
B. Error noted does not correspond to error encountered
C. Error condition causes system intervention prior to error handling
D. Error description provides enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error

 

Unit testing is done by ??

A. Users
B. Developers
C. Customers
D. None of the mentioned

Which of the following is non-functional testing ??

A. Black box testing
B. Performance testing
C. Unit testing
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator (CRC) modeling ??

A. All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC modeling
B. The review leader reads the use-case deliberately
C. Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which model in system modeling depicts the dynamic behavior of the system ??

A. Context Model
B. Behavioral Model
C. Data Model
D. Object Model

 

Which of the following is not a regression test case ??

A. A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions
B. Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change
C. Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed
D. Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function

 

Which diagrams of UML represent Interaction modeling ??

A. Use Case, Sequence
B. Class, Object
C. Activity, State Chart
D. All of the mentioned

 

At which testing level the focus is on customer usage ??

A. Alpha Testing
B. Beta Testing
C. Validation Testing
D. Both Alpha and Beta

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Which of the following diagram is not supported by UML considering Data-driven modeling ??

A. Activity
B. Data Flow Diagram (DFD)
C. State Chart
D. Component

 

Which perspective in system modeling shows the system or data architecture ??

A. Structural perspective
B. Behavioral perspective
C. External perspective
D. All of the mentioned

 

By collecting what during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process ??

A. Failure intensity
B. Testing time
C. Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software modeling. How many different notations does it have ??

A. Three
B. Four
C. Six
D. Nine

Which of the following is not software testing generic characteristics ??

A. Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
B. Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
C. Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing strategy
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) models all entities and relationships ??

A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 4

 

Which of the following is black box testing ??

A. Basic path testing
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Code path analysis
D. None of the mentioned

Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software ??

A. KLOC
B. Function Points
C. Size of module
D. None of the mentioned

Which model in system modeling depicts the static nature of the system ??

A. Behavioral Model
B. Context Model
C. Data Model
D. Structural Model

Behavioral testing is ??

A. White box testing
B. Black box testing
C. Grey box testing
D. None of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

SPICE stands for ??

A. Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination
B. Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
C. Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
D. None of the mentioned

 

The UML supports event-based modeling using which diagrams ??

A. Deployment
B. Collaboration
C. Statechart
D. All of the mentioned

 

Beta testing is done at ??

A. User’s end
B. Developer’s end
C. User’s & Developer’s end
D. None of the mentioned

 

What allows us to infer that different members of classes have some common characteristics ??

A. Realization
B. Aggregation
C. Generalization
D. dependency

 

Acceptance testing is also known as ??

A. Gray box testing
B. White box testing
C. Alpha Testing
D. Beta testing

 

A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by ??

A. Henry Gantt
B. Barry Boehm
C. Ivar Jacobson
D. None of the mentioned

 

Testing done without planning and Documentation is called ??

A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. None of the mentioned

 

What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be accomplished to complete a particular project ??

A. Task set
B. Degree of milestone
C. Adaptation criteria
D. All of the mentioned

 

Alpha Testing is done at ??

A. Developer’s end
B. User’s end
C. Developer’s & User’s end
D. None of the mentioned

 

Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed as what ??

A. Compartmentalization
B. Defined milestones
C. Defined responsibilities
D. Defined outcomes

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

What are the various Testing Levels ??

A. Unit Testing
B. System Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. All of the mentioned

 

Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in Software Scheduling is known as what ??

A. Time Allocation
B. Effort Validation
C. Defined Milestone
D. Effort Distribution

 

Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology ??

A. Retesting
B. Sanity testing
C. Breadth test and depth test
D. Confirmation testing

 

What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of the project scope ??

A. Concept scoping
B. Preliminary concept planning
C. Technology risk assessment
D. Customer reaction to the concept

 

The testing in which code is checked is ??

A. Black box testing
B. White box testing
C. Red box testing
D. Green box testing

 

Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development ??

A. PERT
B. CPM
C. CMM
D. Both PERT and CPM

 

Boundary value analysis belongs to ??

A. White Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. White Box & Black Box Testing
D. None of the mentioned

 

What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process should be applied on a project ??

A. Degree of Rigor
B. Adaptation criteria
C. Task Set
D. Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria

 

Which of the following is/are White box techniques??

A. Statement Testing
B. Decision Testing
C. Condition Coverage
D. All of the mentioned

 

A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as ??

A. BCWS
B. EVA
C. BAC
D. CBSE

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

White Box Techniques are also classified as what ??

A. Design based testing
B. Structural testing
C. Error guessing technique
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is not an adaptation criterion for software projects ??

A. Size of the project
B. Customers Complaints
C. Project staff
D. Mission criticality

 

What is Cyclomatic complexity ??

A. Black box testing
B. White box testing
C. Yellow box testing
D. Green box testing

 

Which of the following categories is part of the output of the software process ??

A. computer programs
B. documents that describe the computer programs
C. data
D. all of the mentioned

 

Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include ??

A. A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
B. A separate configuration management team for each project
C. Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
D. All of the mentioned

 

Exhaustive testing is ??

A. always possible
B. practically possible
C. impractical but possible
D. impractical and impossible

 

Which activity sits at the core of software requirements analysis ??

A. Problem decomposition
B. Partitioning
C. Problem elaboration
D. All of the mentioned

What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project ??

A. 40-20-40
B. 50-20-30
C. 30-40-30
D. 50-30-20

 

What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk ??

A. Risk monitoring
B. Risk planning
C. Risk analysis
D. Risk identification

 

Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change ??

A. Baselines
B. Source code
C. Data model
D. None of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a ??

A. Client
B. Investor
C. Production team
D. Project manager

 

What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process ??

A. Change control
B. Version control
C. SCIs
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “ The underlying technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology. ” ??

A. Technology change
B. Product competition
C. Requirements change
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system ??

A. System building
B. Release management
C. Change management
D. Version management

 

Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed ??

A. People risks
B. Technology risks
C. Estimation risks
D. Organizational risks

 

Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity ??

A. Configuration item identification
B. Risk management
C. Release management
D. Branch management

 

Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “ Derive traceability information to maximize information hiding in the design. ” ??

A. Underestimated development time
B. Organizational restructuring
C. Requirements changes
D. None of the mentioned

 

What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review ??

A. Software configuration audit
B. Software configuration management
C. Baseline
D. None of the mentioned

 

A make-buy decision is based on whether ??

A. The software may be purchased off-the-shelf
B. “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” software components should be used
C. Customer-built software should be developed
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools ??

A. Tracking of change proposals
B. Storing versions of system components
C. Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
D. None of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Who suggested the four different approaches to the sizing problem ??

A. Putnam
B. Myers
C. Boehm
D. Putnam and Myers

 

The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in ??

A. ISO 9000
B. CMM
C. CMMI
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is not one of the five information domain characteristics of Function Point (FP) decomposition ??

A. External inputs
B. External outputs
C. External process
D. External inquiries

 

Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded and maintained ??

A. Codeline
B. Configuration control
C. Version
D. Workspace

 

v Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost drivers ??

A. Personnel Factor
B. Product Factor
C. Platform Factor
D. Project Factor

 

What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use ??

A. System building
B. Release management
C. Change management
D. Version management

 

PM-CMM stands for ??

A. people management capability maturity model
B. process management capability maturity model
C. product management capability maturity model
D. project management capability maturity model

 

Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes ??

A. Change management
B. Version management
C. System building
D. Release management

 

Who defines the business issues that often have a significant influence on the project ??

A. Practitioners
B. Project managers
C. Senior managers
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover software problems ??

A. Agile method
B. Parallel compilation method
C. Large systems method
D. All of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Which of the following is not a sign that indicates that an information systems project is in jeopardy ??

A. Software people don’t understand their customer’s needs
B. Changes are managed poorly
C. Sponsorship is gained
D. Users are resistant

 

Which of the following is not a Version management feature ??

A. Version and release identification
B. Build script generation
C. Project support
D. Change history recording

 

Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late ??

A. Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
B. Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
C. Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is not a build system feature ??

A. Minimal recompilation
B. Documentation generation
C. Storage management
D. Reporting

 

Which of the following is a collection of project coordination techniques??

A. Formal approaches
B. Formal, interpersonal procedures
C. Informal, interpersonal procedures
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is a configuration item ??

A. Design & Test specification
B. Source code
C. Log information
D. All of the mentioned

 

Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in ??

A. project delay
B. poor quality work
C. project failure
D. all of the mentioned

 

A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as ??

A. System building
B. Mainline
C. Software Configuration Item(SCI)
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity ??

A. project control
B. project management
C. project planning
D. project design

 

Which of the following is a collection of component versions that make up a system ??

A. Version
B. Codeline
C. Baseline
D. None of the mentioned

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application ??

A. Practitioners
B. Project managers
C. Senior managers
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is a part of the system release ??

A. electronic and paper documentation describing the system
B. packaging and associated publicity that has been designed for that release
C. an installation program that is used to help install the system on the target hardware
D. all of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is a people-intensive activity ??

A. Problem solving
B. Organization
C. Motivation
D. Project management

 

Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “ The creation of a new code line from a version in an existing code line ” ??

A. Branching
B. Merging
C. Codeline
D. Mainline

 

Which software engineering team has no permanent leader ??

A. Controlled decentralized (CD)
B. Democratic decentralized (DD)
C. Controlled Centralized (CC)
D. None of the mentioned

 

A software _____ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for software development can be established ??

A. people
B. product
C. process
D. none of the mentioned

 

SPMP stands for ??

A. Software Project Manager’s Plan
B. Software Project Management Plan
C. Software Product Management Plan
D. Software Product Manager’s Plan

 

Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus ??

A. people
B. product
C. popularity
D. process

 

Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks ??

A. Software Macroscopic schedule
B. Software Project scheduling
C. Software Detailed schedule
D. None of the mentioned

 

If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as ??

A. LOC
B. FP
C. Fuzzy Logic
D. LOC and FP

 

Software Engineering MCQs

Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the structure of software engineering teams ??

A. The difficulty of the problem to be solved
B. High frustration caused by personal, business, or technological factors that causes friction among team members
C. The degree of sociability required for the project
D. The rigidity of the delivery date

 

The expected value for the estimation variable (size), S, can be computed as a weighted average of the optimistic(Sopt), most likely (Sm), and pessimistic (Specs) estimates given as ??

A. EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/4
B. EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/6
C. EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6
D. EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4

 

Which type of software engineering team has a defined leader who coordinates specific tasks and secondary leaders that have responsibility for sub-tasks ??

A. Controlled decentralized (CD)
B. Democratic decentralized (DD)
C. Controlled centralized (CC)
D. None of the mentioned

 

If a Direct approach to software project sizing is taken, size can be measured in ??

A. LOC
B. FP
C. LOC and FP
D. None of the mentioned

 

Who interacts with the software once it is released for production use ??

A. End-users
B. Client
C. Project (technical) managers
D. Senior managers

 

How many forms exist of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO Model ??

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. No form exists

 

Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified ??

A. Business impact risks
B. Process definition risks
C. Product size risks
D. Development environment risks

 

Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm ??

A. asynchronous paradigm
B. open paradigm
C. closed paradigm
D. synchronous paradigm

 

Which software project sizing approach develops estimates of the information domain characteristics ??

A. Function point sizing
B. Change sizing
C. Standard component sizing
D. Fuzzy logic sizing

 

Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on the individual initiative of the team members ??

A. random paradigm
B. open paradigm
C. closed paradigm
D. synchronous paradigm

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Why is decomposition technique required ??

A. Software project estimation is a form of problem-solving
B. Developing a cost and effort estimate for a software project is too complex
C. All of the mentioned
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which paradigm relies on the natural compartmentalization of a problem and organizes team members to work on pieces of the problem with little active communication among themselves ??

A. random paradigm
B. open paradigm
C. closed paradigm
D. synchronous paradigm

 

Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced ??

A. Avoidance strategies
B. Minimization strategies
C. Contingency plans
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is not an effective project manager trait ??

A. Problem solving
B. Managerial identity
C. Influence and team building
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the system ??

A. Managerial risks
B. Technology risks
C. Estimation risks

 

Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation ??

A. Empirical
B. Heuristic
C. Analytical
D. Critical

 

Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected ??

A. Product risk
B. Project risk
C. Business risk
D. Programming risk

 

What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss ??

A. Risk exposure
B. Risk prioritization
C. Risk analysis
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: ” the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use. ” ??

A. Performance risk
B. Cost risk
C. Support risk
D. Schedule risk

 

Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “ There will be a change of organizational management with different priorities. ” ??

A. Staff turnover
B. Technology change
C. Management change
D. Product competition

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace ??

A. Business impact risks
B. Process definition risks
C. Product size risks
D. Development environment risks

 

Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan ??

A. Risk identification
B. Performance risk
C. Support risk
D. Risk projection

 

What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced ??

A. Known risks
B. Business risks
C. Project risks
D. Technical risks

 

How many forms exist of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO Model ??

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. No form exists

 

What threatens the viability of the software to be built ??

A. Known risks
B. Business risks
C. Project risks
D. Technical risks

 

Which of the following is not a business risk ??

A. building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
B. losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
C. lack of documented requirements or software scope
D. losing budgetary or personnel commitment

 

Which software project sizing approach develops estimates of the information domain characteristics ??

A. Function point sizing
B. Change sizing
C. Standard component sizing
D. Fuzzy logic sizin

 

Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II ??

A. Early design estimation model
B. Application Composition estimation model
C. Comprehensive cost estimation model
D. Post architecture estimation model

 

COCOMO stands for ??

A. Constructive cost model
B. Comprehensive cost model
C. Constructive cost estimation model
D. Complete cost estimation model

 

Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting, or database programming ??

A. An application-composition model
B. A post-architecture model
C. A reuse model
D. An early design model

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Which one is not a risk management activity ??

A. Risk assessment
B. Risk generation
C. Risk control
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which model is used during the early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established ??

A. An application-composition model
B. A post-architecture model
C. A reuse model
D. An early design model

 

Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP ??

A. FP-Based Estimation
B. Process-Based Estimation
C. COCOMO
D. Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

 

Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools ??

A. An application-composition model
B. A post-architecture model
C. A reuse model
D. An early design model

 

Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been established ??

A. Early design stage model
B. Post-architecture-stage model
C. Application composition model

 

Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available ??

A. CASE tools
B. Pricing to win
C. Parkinson’s Law
D. Expert judgment

 

Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and evaluation of technology maturity were paramount ??

A. Early design stage model
B. Post-architecture-stage model
C. Application composition model
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed ??

A. Algorithmic cost modeling
B. Expert judgment
C. Estimation by analogy
D. Parkinson’s Law

 

COCOMO was developed initially by ??

A. B.Beizer
B. Rajiv Gupta
C. B.W.Bohem
D. Gregg Rothermel

 

Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost ??

A. Costs of networking and communications
B. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
C. Costs of lunchtime food
D. Costs of support staff

 

Software Engineering MCQs

COCOMO-II was developed at ??

A. University of Texas
B. University of Southern California
C. MIT
D. IIT-Kanpur

 

What is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost ??

A. Algorithmic cost modeling
B. Expert judgment
C. Estimation by analogy
D. Parkinson’s Law

 

What all has to be identified as per risk identification ??

A. Threats
B. Vulnerabilities
C. Consequences
D. All of the mentioned

 

A 66.6% risk is considered as ??

A. very low
B. low
C. moderate
D. high

 

A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called ??

A. JAD
B. CLASS
C. FAST
D. None of the mentioned

 

Which one is not a size measure for software products??

A. LOC
B. Halstead’s program length
C. Function Count
D. Cyclomatic Complexity

 

CLSS stands for ??

A. conveyor line sorting system
B. conveyor line sorting software
C. conveyor line sorting speed
D. conveyor line sorting specification

 

Estimation of size for a project is dependent on ??

A. Cost
B. Time
C. Schedule
D. None of the mentioned

 

The environment that supports the software project is called ??

A. CLSS
B. SEE
C. FAST
D. CBSE

 

Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates ??

A. Project size
B. Planning process
C. Project complexity
D. Degree of structural uncertainty

 

Software Engineering MCQs

What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software ??

A. Function-related metrics
B. Product-related metrics
C. Size-related metrics
D. None of the mentioned

 

Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for ??

A. team
B. project
C. customers
D. project manager

 

Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tool ??

A. Predicting staffing levels
B. Predicting software cost
C. Predicting software schedules
D. Predicting clients demands

 

The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ??

A. Project Management
B. Manager life cycle
C. Project Management Life Cycle
D. All of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is/are the main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project ??

A. travel and training costs
B. hardware and software costs
C. effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
D. all of the mentioned

 

Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project ??

A. Hardware and software costs
B. Effort costs
C. Travel and training costs
D. All of the mentioned

 

What describes the data and control to be processed ??

A. Planning process
B. Software scope
C. External hardware
D. Project complexity

 

What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right ??

A. Automated estimation tools
B. Empirical estimation models
C. Decomposition techniques
D. Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models

 

Which of the following is an incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system ??

A. Internship management
B. Change management
C. Version management
D. System management

 

Which of the following is not an option to achieve a reliable cost and effort estimate ??

A. Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
B. Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
C. Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
D. The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars

 

Software Engineering MCQs

 

Which of the following is not a project management goal ??

A. Keeping overall costs within budget
B. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
C. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
D. Avoiding customer complaints

 

The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all-important software functions which are known as ??

A. Association
B. Decomposition
C. Planning process
D. All of the mentioned

 

Identify the sub-process of process improvement ??

A. Process introduction
B. Process analysis
C. De-processification
D. Process distribution

 

Which of the following is not considered a risk in project management ??

A. Specification delays
B. Product competition
C. Testing
D. Staff turnover

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